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Challenges of Nation Building 12th Political Science Lesson 7 Questions in English

12th Political Science Lesson 7 Questions in English

7] Challenges of Nation Building

1. Who published the three -volume work “THE HISTORY OF BRITISH INDIA”?

  1. James Walter
  2. Walter Whitman
  3. James Mill
  4. Walter Mill

Explanation

James Mill was a Scottish economist and political theorist, philosopher, published a three-volume work called THE HISTORY OF BRITISH INDIA in 1817. He divided Indian history into three periods – Hindu, Muslim and British. According to Mill, before the British came to India, the country was ruled by Hindu and Muslim autocrats, religious intolerance, caste taboos and superstitious dominated the social life in India. Mill felt that the British rule could civilize India by introducing British institutions, laws and manners in the country. According to him, British rule could bring enlightenment and help India to progress.

2. From where Rajputs migrated into the Indian sub-continent?

  1. Eastern Asia
  2. Central Asia
  3. Southern India
  4. South East Asia

Explanation

In the westerns and central India. Princely states came into existence with the entry of Rajputs into the Indian sub-continent who migrated from Central Asia around 200 AD(CE).

3. Which of the following statement about Rajput is correct?

  1. The word ‘Rajput’ means ‘sons of kings’
  2. The princely states by Rajput were established even before the Mughal and British colonial invasion
  3. 1 alone
  4. 2 alone
  5. 1, 2
  6. None

Explanation

The word ‘Rajput’ means ‘sons of kings’. Hence, princely states were established even before the Mughal and British colonial invasion. A ‘princely state’ or a ‘native state’ is a political unit of a larger administrative province, which either is ruled directly by monarchic lineage or serves as a subsidiary coalition with a more powerful monarchic government. These smaller administrative pockets were based on the political, cultural, lingual, and geographical landscape.

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. There were a number of non-Rajput princely states too some ruled by Nawabs and Nijams, some ruled by native dynasties like Mysore, Travancore and Pudukottai
  2. The word ‘princely’ was deliberately retained during the British regime, to ascribe subordination of the rulers in the subcontinent to the British Crown.
  3. The princely states were established even before the Mughal and British colonial invasion
  1. 1, 2
  2. 1, 3
  3. 2, 3
  4. All the above

Explanation

The princely states were established even before the Mughal and British colonial invasion. There were a number of nonRajput princely states too some ruled by Nawabs and Nijams, some ruled by native dynasties like Mysore, Travancore and Pudukottai. All those monarchical states subordinated to the British India were termed as Princely States. However, the word ‘princely’ was deliberately retained during the British regime, to ascribe subordination of the rulers in the subcontinent to the British Crown.

5. To which century does Bimbisara, and Ajatasatru belongs?

  1. 5th century AD
  2. 6th century BC
  3. 6th century AD
  4. 5th century BC

Explanation

The princely states were fragmented administrative pockets and the subject of integration of princely states in the phase preceding Indian independence has a long history even before the Colonial invasion. Many dynasties attempted to integrate the princely states starting from the Maghadan Kings, Bimbisara, and Ajatasatru belonging to sixth century BC(BCE).

6. Who is the father of Samudragupta?

  1. Bindusara
  2. Bimbisara
  3. Gadothgaja
  4. Chandragupta

Explanation

The Maurya and Ashoka, and five centuries later Chandragupta and his son Samudragupta, all of them who almost managed to bring many smaller kingdoms together, but consolidating under one rule still remained a far cry. Many princely states asserted their autonomy while pledging their loyalty to a powerful neighbouring ruler, especially during the time of war. However, when the thirst for power, jealousy and frequent disagreements among kingdoms led to resentment and disunity, it paved way for Arab and Persian invasion, establishing the Moghul empire and eventually conquering the northern part of pre-independent India.

7. Assertion(A): There were two kinds of princely states: ‘Salute Princely States’ and ‘Non-

Salute Princely States’.

Reason(R): There were 565 princely states in pre-independent India and, the ‘gun salute’

system under the British rule was an open gesture to announce the level of

affiliation of a princely state to the British East India Company

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

By the time European colonisation, i.e. the British, Portuguese, and French, started to take over, the disunity worked in their favour to establish their presence, initially through trade. Among the three, the British managed to institute sovereignty under the crown of many princely states but not all. There were 565 princely states in pre-independent India and, the ‘gun salute’ system under the British rule was an open gesture to announce the level of affiliation of a princely state to the British East India Company. Therefore, there were two kinds of princely states: ‘Salute Princely States’ and ‘Non- Salute Princely States’.

8. Assertion(A): The heads, rulers, or princes of these states, were greeted with gun salutes.

Reason(R): The number of guns used to salute a particular head of a State reflected the

level of honour and prestige granted to a ruler

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

The ‘Salute States’ were States that had the British East India presence, and there were around 117 to 120 salute states. So, the heads, rulers, or princes of these states, were greeted with gun salutes. The number of guns used to salute a particular head of a State reflected the level of honour and prestige granted to a ruler.

9. What was the highest gun salute honour granted to a Indian ruler?

  1. 9
  2. 18
  3. 21
  4. 24

Explanation

A 21-gun salute was the highest honour granted to a ruler and rulers of lesser ranks received a minimum of 9-gun salute.

10. Which of the following state ruler have not received 21-gun salute?

  1. Maharaja Scindia of Gwalior
  2. Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir
  3. Nawab of Sachin
  4. Nizam of Hyderabad

Explanation

Some of the rulers who received the 21-gun salute include:

* His Highness the Maharaja Scindia of Gwalior

* His Highness the Maharaja Gaekwar of Baroda

* His Highness the Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir

* His Highness the Maharaja of Mysore

* His Exalted Highness the Nizam of Hyderabad and Berar

11. Which of the following ruler received 9-gun salutes?

  1. Nawab of Sachin
  2. Maharaja of Patna
  3. Nawab of Oudh
  4. Nawab of Loharu
  5. 1, 2, 3
  6. 2, 3, 4
  7. 1, 2, 4
  8. All the above

Explanation

Some of the rulers who received 9-gun salutes include:

* The Nawab of Sachin

* The Maharaja of Patna

* The Maharana of Wadhwan

* The Nawab of Loharu

12. What was the reason for heads of some States not receiving any gun salute?

  1. Some were not acknowledged as gun salute states
  2. Some princely states were considered of lower prestige
  3. Some princely states were obsolete but the rulers were permitted to their royal entitlements and even received pensions
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

Among the 565 Princely States, only 117 to 120 were salute states, which implied there were many other States which were under the British rule or British Raj were non-salute states. The number of gun salutes or no gun salute actually had nothing to do with the relevance of the States, i.e. if the State was any less or more important than the rest. Some heads of States did not receive any gun salute. Some of the reasons include:

a) Some were not acknowledged as gun salute states

b) Some princely states were considered of lower prestige

c) Some princely states were obsolete but the rulers were permitted to their royal entitlements and even received pensions

13. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. During the pre-independence phase, many princely states enjoyed the patronage of the British rule and were not eager to part with their privileges when the integration of States was proposed.
  2. In 1947, the unification process began amidst high politics, diplomatic negotiations, and violence
  3. The then British Prime Minister Clement Attlee when addressing the House of Commons on 15th March 1946 acknowledged the fight for freedom and the lives lost towards the struggle for an independent nation
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

During the pre-independence phase, many princely states enjoyed the patronage of the British rule and were not eager to part with their privileges when the integration of States was proposed. Some of the rulers were looking forward to establishing finally their own independent State, and assert their autonomy, post-independence. A unification of princely states meant the end of British rule, as well as the dissolving of the princely states, and provinces. In 1947, the unification process began amidst high politics, diplomatic negotiations, and violence. The then British Prime Minister Clement Attlee when addressing the House of Commons on 15th March 1946 acknowledged the fight for freedom and the lives lost towards the struggle for an independent nation. He also put forth the challenges that India would face given its complex cultural heritage. He said, “I am well aware, when I speak of India, that I speak of a country containing a congeries of races, religions and languages, and I know well all the difficulties thereby created. But those difficulties can only be overcome by Indians. We are very mindful of the rights of minorities and minorities should be able to live free from fear.”

14. Who was the 1st Deputy Prime Minister of Independent India?

  1. VP Menon
  2. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

Nevertheless, the process towards nation building and negotiations to merge the States began in April 1947. Some of the problems faced towards nation building were communal riots, partition, and refugee crisis. Once India became independent Sardar Vallabhai Patel, took over as the Deputy Prime Minister and Minister of Home Affairs and the merging of 565 princely states began.

15. Who was the Patel’s able Secretary, who did the groundwork for unification of India?

  1. JS Kirpalani
  2. VP Menon
  3. Dewan Bhutto
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhai Patel along with VP Menon, Patel’s able Secretary, who did the groundwork for unification of princely states, since he was formerly an Indian civil servant, who served the last three British viceroys, made political integration possible.

16. Which of the following states wanted to remain independent after Independence?

  1. Kashmir
  2. Junagadh
  3. Hyderabad
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

Sardar Patel and VP Menon convinced the heads of the Princely States to cooperate by joining the Indian Constituent Assembly. They were also promised that their personal assets and possessions would not be taken over by the government. Many princely states consented, except Junagadh, Kashmir, and Hyderabad who wanted to remain independent.

17. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Three States surrounding Junagadh, chose to be part of India, and the fourth side it is covered by the Bay of Bengal sea.
  2. The majority of the population of Junagadh were non-Muslims, nonetheless Dewan Bhutto joined Pakistan on 15th August 1947.
  3. The Nawab of Junagadh, or his Dewan, Shah Nawaz Bhutto, father of Zulfikar Ali Bhutto, who later went on to become the President of Pakistan, both rejected the autocratic rule
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

The Nawab of Junagadh, or his Dewan, Shah Nawaz Bhutto, father of Zulfikar Ali Bhutto, who later went on to become the President of Pakistan, both rejected the autocratic rule. Three States surrounding Junagadh, chose to be part of India, and the fourth side it is covered by the Arabian sea. The majority of the population were non-Muslims, nonetheless Dewan Bhutto joined Pakistan on 15th August 1947. People started to protest and insisted the Dewan to request the Indian government to take over the administration. By then, the Dewan had already flown with his family to Karachi, the then capital of Pakistan, along with the State’s treasure.

18. Who informed Hyderabad that it cannot become a Dominion?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Sardar Vallabhai Patel
  3. Clement Atlee
  4. Lord Mountbatten

Explanation

The Nizam of Hyderabad was yet another ruler who headed a State with predominantly non-Muslim population. There were lengthy debates on the issue between Hyderabad and Delhi but Lord Mountbatten informed that it cannot become a Dominion. A ‘dominion’ meant a self-governing nation in the British Commonwealth.

19. Which of the following statement is correct about Nizam of Hyderabad?

  1. Nizam of Hyderabad became a prisoner of a communal organisation, Ittehad-ul Musilmeen led by Kasim Razvi, whose armed volunteers were called ‘razakars’.
  2. The Nizam had initially encouraged them but later lost control over their activities
  3. Nizam had lifted the ban on imposed on Communist Party in 1947.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

In addition, it became known that the Nizam became a prisoner of a communal organisation, Ittehad-ulMusilmeen led by Kasim Razvi, whose armed volunteers were called ‘razakars’. The Nizam had initially encouraged them but later lost control over their activities. In addition, the Nizam had also lifted the ban on imposed on Communist Party in 1943. The collaborated activities of the Razakars and the Communist party resulted in violence.

20. When was Indian troops were sent to Hyderabad?

  1. 1947
  2. 1948
  3. 1949
  4. 1950

Explanation

Trains passing through the State of Hyderabad were attacked. With barely any help from the Nizam, the Indian troops were sent into the State in September 1948. The Nizam was offered a large portion of wealth and privileges once he declared that Hyderabad will be part of India.

21. Who initiated the Bhoodan movement?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Vinobha Bhave
  3. Nizam Mir Osman Ali Khan Siddiqi
  4. Hari Shankar Prasad

Explanation

As a result of the Communist antilanlord uprising in Telangana region of Hyderabad was the Bhoodan movement, meaning the ‘gifting of land’. The Bhoodan movement was initiated by Vinobha Bhave, a disciple of Mahatma Gandhi, who promoted the voluntary redistribution of land favouring the landless.

22.Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. Hyderabad, the largest princely state under Nizam Mir Osman Ali Khan Siddiqi, Asaf Jah VII, wanted to join neither India nor Pakistan.
  2. In September 1948, the Indian army under Operation Polo annexed Hyderabad and overthrew the Nizam, merging the State with the rest of the country
  3. 1 alone
  4. 2 alone
  5. Both 1 and 2
  6. None

Explanation

Hyderabad, the largest princely state under Nizam Mir Osman Ali Khan Siddiqi, Asaf Jah VII, wanted to join neither India nor Pakistan. When the peasants of Telangana, who were mostly Hindus, revolted, he exerted violence using his army to suppress the resistance and to fight against the Indian Union. Eventually, in September 1948, the Indian army under Operation Polo annexed Hyderabad and overthrew the Nizam, merging the State with the rest of the country.

23. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Initially, Jodhpur had expressed their desire to join India
  2. But Maharaja Hanvant Singh, preferred joining Pakistan instead of India.
  3. Fearing communal violence, because the population of Jodhpur were predominantly Hindus, Maharaja Hanvant Singh conceded to join India.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

Initially, Jodhpur had expressed their desire to join India, but when Maharaja Hanvant Singh took over as the ruler, he preferred joining Pakistan instead of India. Muhammed Ali Jinnah, allegedly offered Maharaja Hanvant Singh, free access to Karachi port, and arms manufacturing and importing them. Seeing the threat posed at the border, Patel made a better offer to Maharaja Hanvant Singh, by permitting importing of arms, rail connectivity between Jodhpur and Kathiawar and supply of grains to farmers during a famine. Fearing communal violence, because the population of Jodhpur were predominantly Hindus, Maharaja Hanvant Singh conceded to join India.

24. Who was the ruler of Kashmir during Independence?

  1. Maharaja Hanvant Singh
  2. Maharaja Hari Singh
  3. Nizam Mir Osman Ali Khan
  4. Maharaja Devar Singh

Explanation

The only Princely State left was Kashmir, which had a Hindu ruler Maharaja Hari Singh. Since the majority of the population were Muslims, Pakistan assumed Kashmir belonged to them.

25. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. On August 15th 1947, ruler Hari Singh proposed a standstill agreement allowing the mobility of people and goods.
  2. Lord Mountbatten clarified that under the International law, India can send her military troops only if the State signs the instrument of accession, which Hari Singh promptly did, on 26th October 1950
  3. On the very next day, 27th October 1950, the army was sent to Srinagar, ousting Pakistan from the Kashmir valley
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

on August 15th 1947, ruler Hari Singh proposed a standstill agreement allowing the mobility of people and goods. Pakistan consented but India refused, which provoked Pakistan to violate the Standstill agreement. When Hari Singh wanted military assistance from India, Lord Mountbatten clarified that under the International law, India can send her military troops only if the State signs the instrument of accession, which Hari Singh promptly did, on 26th October 1954. On the very next day, 27th October 1954, the army was sent to Srinagar, ousting Pakistan from the Kashmir valley.

26. Assertion(A): Even before independence, the linguistic vibrancy of the land had a

significant impact on mobilising movements and protests during the

freedom struggle

Reason(R): The plan for linguistic re-organisation began in 1917 by the Congress party

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Even before independence, the linguistic vibrancy of the land had a significant impact on mobilising movements and protests during the freedom struggle. Hence, the restructuring of the States based on vernacular languages was of strategic importance in integrating the States as one nation. In fact, when Annie Besant initiated the ‘Home Rule Movement’, there were more participants from the Southern region. The plan for linguistic re-organisation began in 1917 by the Congress party; plans to redistribute the provinces on linguistic basis came to the fore and by the 1920s, there were expressions on the need to acknowledge vernacular languages for administration and formal education.

27. Which state become 1st linguistically independent State in India before Independence?

  1. Madras
  2. Odisha
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Rajasthan

Explanation

In fact, many regional Congress members also insisted on linguistic provincials, especially the Andhra Provincial Congress Committee consolidated the Telugu speaking districts from the Madras Presidency in 1917. Noticing the rising demand for a linguistic assertion, the process of re-distribution of provinces began in 1927. After a long struggle that began in 1895, to separate from Bihar from the Odisha Province, Odisha became the first Indian State to be linguistically independent State in 1936.

28. Which of the following leaders were in favour of States reorganised on linguistic basis?

  1. Lokmanya Tilak
  2. Annie Besant
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

Prominent leaders such as Lokmanya Tilak, Annie Besant, and Mahatma Gandhi were all in favour of States reorganised on linguistic basis.

29. When was the first Linguistic Province Commission setup?

  1. 1950
  2. 1949
  3. 1948
  4. 1956

Explanation

Once, India became independent, Congress was apprehensive about separating the States based on vernacular languages fearing more unrest, similar to the religious conflicts that lead to the partition. Eventually, in 1948, the Constituent Assembly set up the first Linguistic Province Commission (LPC), to review the practicality of linguistic provinces under the headship of Justice SK Dhar.

30. Assertion(A): ‘The Dhar Commission’ favoured the linguistic redistribution of states

Reason(R): They said that it will be supportive towards the unity of India

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

The first Linguistic Province Commission (LPC) called, ‘The Dhar Commission’ did not favour the linguistic redistribution fearing threat to national unity and difficulty in the administrative process.

31. When was JVP Committee setup?

  1. 1948
  2. 1949
  3. 1950
  4. 1956

Explanation

The decision by Dhar Commission did not go well with the citizens of the country, especially those in States with independent linguistic identity. Therefore, in 1948, Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabhai Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya, who was then the President of the Congress, set up the JVP Committee, to reconsider the demand of linguistic reorganisation.

32. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Initially, the JVP committee adamantly continued to oppose the reorganisation of linguistic States
  2. Agitation and movements across the country continued for linguistic States until the 1990s
  3. 1 alone
  4. 2 alone
  5. 1, 2
  6. None

Explanation

Initially, the committee adamantly continued to oppose the reorganisation of linguistic States, insisting on higher ideals like unity and development. With the growing demand for linguistic autonomy, a report was generated enabling the creation of linguistic States. Agitation and movements across the country continued until the 1960s.

33. Which of the following state was 1st linguistic State after independence?

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Odisha
  3. Punjab
  4. Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

The first linguistic State was Andhra Pradesh comprising of Telugu speaking people established under pressure. Massive protests prevailed for the state of Andhra Pradesh

34. On which day of his hunger strike Potti Sriramulu died?

  1. 55th day
  2. 56th day
  3. 65th day
  4. 45th day

Explanation

Massive protests prevailed for a prolonged period, costing the life of Potti Sriramulu, who died on the 56th day of his hunger strike. Violent agitation followed all over Andhra Pradesh even after his death. When the protests by Vishalandhra movement, meaning Greater Andhra, persisted, Nehru was forced to declare the State of Andhra Pradesh, after merging Telugu speaking Hyderabad State and Andhra State in 1956.

35. Which of the following were the commission setup for linguistic state re-organisation?

  1. Dhar Commission
  2. JVP Commission
  3. Fazl Commission
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

The commissions such as Dhar Commission, JVP Committee and Fazl Commission were set up to review the Linguistic re-organisation of the states

36. When did Fazl Commission Submitted its report?

  1. 1955
  2. 1948
  3. 1949
  4. 1956

Explanation

Heeding to the growing violent insistence for the creation of States based on linguistic factors from across the country, Jawaharlal Nehru appointed three members with Shri Saiyid Fazl Ali as the Chairman, Hridayanath Kunzru, and K.M. Panikkar as the members to set up the Fazl Commission, to review the demand for separate States. Finally, on 22nd December 1953, the Fazl Commission was in place. The Commission acknowledges four major criteria to consider for the reorganisation of the States based on languages, and the report was submitted in September 1955.

37. How many states and Union territories were suggested by Fazl commission?

  1. 16, 3
  2. 17, 4
  3. 16, 5
  4. 17, 3

Explanation

The Fazl Commission suggested the reorganisation of the county into sixteen States and three Union Territories. The Indian government accepted the report, though it made few modifications and constituted the State Reorganisation Act in 1956.

38. Which of the following is not a Union Territories that came into existence by State

Reorganisation Act, 1956?

  1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  2. Manipur
  3. Delhi
  4. Pondicherry

Explanation

After the State Reorganisation Act, 1956 was passed by the Parliament, and the Indian government implemented it leading to the creation of 14 States and 6 Union Territories came into existence in 1st November 1956. The States were Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Bombay, Jammu and Kashmir, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Madras, Mysore, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. The six union territories were Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Delhi, Himachal Pradesh, Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands, Manipur and Tripura.

39. Match the following

  1. State of Nagaland Act 1. 1966
  2. Formation of Gujarat 2. 1962
  3. Formation of Haryana 3. 1970
  4. New State of Himachal Pradesh Act 4. 1960
  5. 1, 4, 2, 3
  6. 2, 4, 1, 3
  7. 2, 3, 1, 4
  8. 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation

The reorganisation of States continued even after 1956, and not particularly based on vernacular language, after careful consideration by the Parliament. Some of the States that emerged after 1956 include:

* Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960: Formation of Gujarat

* State of Nagaland Act, 1962: State of Nagaland, separate from Assam

* Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966: Formation of Haryana

* New State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970

* North Eastern Reorganisation act, 1971: Formation of Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Union territories of Arunachal Pradesh & Mizoram

40. Match the following

  1. Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act 1. 2000
  2. Bihar Reorganisation Act 2. 2014
  3. State of Goa Act 3. 1975
  4. New State of Sikkim Act 4. 1987
  5. 2, 1, 4, 3
  6. 2, 1, 3, 4
  7. 2, 3, 1, 4
  8. 3, 1, 2, 4

Explanation

* New State of Sikkim Act in 1975

* State of Arunachal Pradesh Act, State of Mizoram act 1986: Formation of the States of Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh

* State of Goa Act in 1987

* Reorganisation Act, 2000: Formation of Chhattisgarh

* Reorganisation Act, 2000: Formation of Uttarakhand

* Bihar Reorganisation Act, 2000: Formation of Jharkhand

* Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014: Formation of Telangana

41. Match the following localities demanding separate States with their corresponding states:

  1. Purvanchal 1. Western Uttar Pradesh
  2. Gorkhaland 2. Odisha
  3. Kosal 3. Northern West Bengal
  4. Harith Pradesh 4. Eastern Uttar Pradesh
  5. 2, 1, 3, 4
  6. 2, 1, 3, 4
  7. 4, 3, 2, 1
  8. 4, 2, 1, 3

Explanation

The process of reorganisation of States continues with some of the localities demanding separate States:

1. Harith Pradesh (Western Uttar Pradesh) 2. Purvanchal (Eastern Uttar Pradesh) 3. Bodoland (Northern Assam) 4. Saurashtra (Southern Gujarat) 5. Gorkhaland (Northern West Bengal) 6. Vidarbha (Eastern Maharashtra) 7. Kosal (Odisha)

42. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. During the British Colonial period, there were about 600 administrative units as the Princely States.
  2. Depending on the geographical, cultural, and religious preferences, people were given a choice to either stay back in the new country India or equally new country Pakistan
  3. The current administrative units were formed between 1947 and 1950.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

During the British Colonial period, there were about 600 administrative units as the Princely States. Depending on the geographical, cultural, and religious preferences, people were given a choice to either stay back in the new country India or equally new country Pakistan. Meanwhile, there were other countries that were formed such as Bhutan. The current administrative units were formed between 1947 and 1950. Some places retained their boundaries from British India such as Mysore, Hyderabad, and Bhopal.

43. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. Amidst religious tensions, post-independence witnessed two nations, India and Pakistan.
  2. One of the primary concerns for the Indian government was to instil sentiments of unity and a deep sense of belonging to the country.
  3. The reorganisation of the country maintained cultural diversity, linguistic vibrancy, and glorious heritage
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. None

Explanation

Amidst religious tensions, post-independence witnessed two nations, India and Pakistan. The independence of India led to the close of colonial rule and in the reorganisation of States, which were mostly based on languages, and the rest based on a geographical and cultural basis. Hence, the new nation of India was restructured and reorganised, which instituted easier governance and administration. The reorganisation of the country maintained cultural diversity, linguistic vibrancy, and glorious heritage. One of the primary concerns for the Indian government was to instil sentiments of unity and a deep sense of belonging to the country. During the national movement, Congress did take notice of the impact vernacular languages had in mobilising powerful participation towards freedom.

44. Assertion(A): With the number of agitation that prevailed while restructuring the States

based on language, made it clear, that the Centre was stronger than the

States

Reason(R): The reorganisation of the States and granting self-governance to the States

meant, the central government and the State government had to balance the

powers.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Immediately after independence, the same vigour had to be translated by redrawing the map of India, which was now destined for self-governance, replacing the colonial mapping, which had completely negated the local lingual, historical, and cultural dynamics of the land. The reorganisation of the States and granting self-governance to the States meant, the central government and the State government had to balance the powers. However, with the number of agitation that prevailed while restructuring the States based on language, made it clear, that the Centre was stronger than the States. Therefore, the process of nation-building was facing a new ordeal where the country was declared independent, but the States wanted a similar political consolidation based on ethnicity, geographical borders, language and more autonomy in local governance.

45. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. The key leaders who paved the way for the restructuring include Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Vallabhai Patel.
  2. They did not want to divide the country any further because they had a vision a more pluralistic nation.
  3. 1 alone
  4. 2 alone
  5. 1, 2
  6. None

Explanation

The key leaders who paved the way for the restructuring include Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Vallabhai Patel. However, the pain of partition and circumstances under which the participation led to justifiable concerns for the two leaders. They did not want to divide the country any further because they had a vision a more pluralistic nation, a unified State than one that should be further divided based on any specific identity that differentiates people based on religion, language, or ethnicity. Hence, the apprehension to reorganise the States had its roots from past experiments and experiences. The former provinces and presidencies served the colonial administration, now the States had a specific cultural identity, linguistic individuality, economic viability, geographical placement, political improvement, and administrative convenience.

46. Assertion(A): Following the creation of the States, distribution of resources and right to

access to resources became the next priority.

Reason(R): Some States were large, and some were small and Some States, irrespective

of their size, wielded more power than the rest.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Following the creation of the States, distribution of resources and right to access to resources became the next priority. Some States were large, and some were small. Some States, irrespective of their size, wielded more power than the rest. Therefore, the Central government had to ensure a balance was maintained between the developed and the underdeveloped States. This was ensured through assigning impartial supply of capital, development projects, and labour opportunities. Since the size of the States differed, smaller States raised concerns that the larger States would have more control over resources thus, moderating, or even violating the access of the smaller States to access resources. The result of such sentiments, will lead to resentment, worsen the economic disparity, and assert hegemonic usurpation of resources.

47. Assertion(A): Restructuring could not be done with the language being the only criterion

Reason(R): Structuring of States based on languages sparked a debate between national

identity and linguistic-cultural identity.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Post-independence, the cultural, social, political, linguistic, and economic restructuring process was implemented for specific political reasons. Restructuring could not be done with the language being the only criterion, because it stood in the way of national integration. It gave certain languages more privilege over the others, which did not go well with States whose linguistic population was lesser than other dominant languages. Therefore, structuring of States based on languages sparked a debate between national identity and linguistic-cultural identity.

48. Bodos people belongs to which state?

  1. West Bengal
  2. Karnataka
  3. Assam
  4. Kerala

Explanation

Some such communities include Bodos in Assam and the Coorgis in Karnataka. Even if two neighbouring States, spoke the same language, it still caused unrest concerning the assertion of national identity owing to caste, ethnic, and religious differences.

49. How many languages were recognized initially in 1950 by Government of India?

  1. 11
  2. 12
  3. 22
  4. 15

Explanation

Nevertheless, in 1950, 12 languages were recognised but later 22 languages were acknowledged, which shows the growing demand among linguistic-cultural communities aspiring for political identity.

50. Which of the following states had border negotiation?

  1. Karnataka and Maharashtra
  2. Andhra Pradesh and parts of Madras Presidency
  3. Maharashtra and Gujarat
  4. Haryana and Punjab
  5. 1, 2, 3
  6. 1, 3, 4
  7. 2, 3, 4
  8. All the above

Explanation

Prior to independence, the land was divided into Provinces, Princely States, and Presidencies. Once States were declared, the borders had to be negotiated especially between States such as Karnataka and Maharashtra, Maharashtra and Gujarat, Haryana and Punjab, Odisha and West Bengal, and between Andhra Pradesh and parts of Madras Presidency.

51. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. Apart from the other differences, the dominant linguistic communities asserted their specific regional and cultural forms of power and identity
  2. The State had to accommodate the cultural linguistic minorities who spoke languages other than the language of the dominant population.
  3. 1 alone
  4. 2 alone
  5. 1, 2
  6. None

Explanation

Apart from the other differences, the dominant linguistic communities asserted their specific regional and cultural forms of power and identity. These very specific cultural and linguistic identities received patronage from the State. Here again, the State had to accommodate the cultural linguistic minorities who spoke languages other than the language of the dominant population.

52. In which of the following fields dominant population started to assert their power over the

minorities?

  1. Administration
  2. Employment
  3. judiciary
  4. economy
  5. 1, 3, 4
  6. 2, 3, 4
  7. 1, 2, 4
  8. All the above

Explanation

As expected, the dominant population started to assert their power over the minorities, by imposing the language of the dominant linguistic population in administration, education, employment, judiciary, and economy. To tackle the cultural autonomy, development issues, and regional inequalities. States had to strategies a standard agenda that ensured overall development of all linguistic communities. In spite of the efforts by the government to ensure uniformity, two cultures emerged, the elite and the mass.

53. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. The regional parties across States started to emerge because of region-based identity movements and loyalty towards one’s own region.
  2. When regional political parties began to emerge, it meant more challenge for the Centre because the problems at the grassroots were not the same throughout the country
  3. 1 alone
  4. 2 alone
  5. 1, 2
  6. None

Explanation
The regional parties across States started to emerge because of region-based identity movements and loyalty towards one’s own region. Most of the political parties were capitalised on the local bases of power. The economic inequality and regional disparities slowed down the development pace and in some cases stalled progress. When regional political parties began to emerge, it meant more challenge for the Centre because the problems at the grassroots were not the same throughout the country.

54. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. The Parliament in recent context can form a new State by removing a particular locality from any State
  2. The power to alter the boundary of a state lies within the hands of President alone.
  3. The Parliament has the power to increase or reduce the land to be allotted for a particular State.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

The Parliament in recent context can form a new State by removing a particular locality from any State. Therefore, a single State has the potential to be multiple States. At the same time, the Parliament has the power to increase or reduce the land to be allotted for a particular State. Other powers include changing the boundary and even the name of the State. However, for all these changes to be implemented, a bill will be drafted and referred by the President to the legislature of the State that is in question. The legislature of the State will is granted a certain period to express their views of the State government and then a resolution will be presented before the assembly. If the State Assembly passes the bill, then the President recommends the introduction of a separate bill in the Parliament. If the Parliament passes the bill, then the President ratifies it and a new State comes into existence.

55. When was Andhra Pradesh was formally bifurcated into Andhra Pradesh and Telangana?

  1. June 2, 2012
  2. June 2, 2014
  3. June 2, 2015
  4. June 2, 2011

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh was formally bifurcated by an Act of Parliament on June 2,2014. The event marked the end of the decades-old movement demanding a separate state.

56. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. The word nation comes from the Latin and when first coined clearly conveyed the idea of common blood ties.
  2. A State exists where there is a territory, a people, a government and sovereignty, it may lack the feeling of nationality or of oneness among the people and yet remain a State.
  3. The term ‘nation’ emphasises the consciousness of unity among its people and according to the older view, a nation need not necessarily be a State.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. None

Explanation

The State: A State exists where there is a territory, a people, a government and sovereignty, it may lack the feeling of nationality or of oneness among the people and yet remain a State. The sense of belonging together creates a readiness on the part of the members of a State to subordinate their differences to the common good.

The Nation: The word nation comes from the Latin and when first coined clearly conveyed the idea of common blood ties. It was derived the past participle of the verb nasci meaning to be born, and hence the Latin noun nationem connoting breed or race. The term ‘nation’ emphasises the consciousness of unity among its people and according to the older view, a nation need not necessarily be a State.

57. Who preferred a planned and mixed economy to make India a self-reliant modern nation?

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Motilal Nehru
  4. Sardar Vallabhai Patel

Explanation

Th e problem was not only increasing production but also reducing disparities. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru preferred a planned and mixed economy to make India a self-reliant modern nation without compromising its democratic and federal bases.

58. Which of the following were ensured by Five-year plan?

  1. irrigation schemes
  2. speedy electrification
  3. Elimination of diseases like malaria
  4. self-sufficiency in food production
  5. 1, 2, 3
  6. 1, 3, 4
  7. 2, 3, 4
  8. All the above

Explanation

Five years plans ensured plenty of irrigation schemes, institution of basic industries, speedy electrification and extensions of infrastructure facilities India was able to eliminate diseases like malaria, to ensure self-sufficiency in food production, and to evolve and accelerate development of modern science and technologies.

59. Who among the following did the Nationalisation of bank?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Rajiv Gandhi
  3. Indira Gandhi
  4. Manmohan Singh

Explanation

During the late 60th and early 70th there were signs of recessions. Leading to political disturbances. Wars with china and Pakistan added to her economic miseries. Nationalisation of bank by Indira Gandhi, electronic revolutions introduced by Rajiv Gandhi did contribute to some positive changes. By 1990 and India had come forward to adopt market oriented new economic policy, thus opening India to LPG (Liberalisation Privatisation & Globalisation)

60. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. The agriculture sector has been declining since the mid-1990s
  2. India’s agriculture sector, which houses more than 60 percent of the people, has grown at a rate of 1.65 percent between 1996/97 and 2004/05.
  3. Ten percent of the marginal farmers do not have access to formal loans
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

The agriculture sector has been declining since the mid-1990s.There were several farmers suicides since 1990 and the export-oriented agriculture has ruined the farmers especially the cotton growing farmers in the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra. India’s agriculture sector, which houses more than 60 percent of the people, has grown at a rate of 1.65 percent between 1996/97 and 2004/05. This is cause for concern as it may produce India’s second agrarian crisis. (The first one was at the beginning of the 1960s) Subsidies to the rich and middle-income farmers like free power, price supports, free water, and free fertilizer have not been reduced but a public investment that uplifts all has come down. US$15 billion loan waiver for farmers announced in the populist Union budget of 2008/09 will not affect the majority of the marginal farmers. Eighty percent of the marginal farmers do not have access to formal loans. Drought proofing 60 million hectares of arable land with the same amount of money would have produced results that are more inclusive.

61. Which Commission recommended reservation for OBCs in Unions educational avenues?

  1. Mandal Commission
  2. Kothari Commission
  3. Sarkaria Commission
  4. Balwantrai Mehta Commission

Explanation

Mandal Commission or Socially and Economically Backward Classes Commission (SEBC) Was established in India on 1st January 1979 by Morarji Desai. Mandal Commission recommended reservation for OBCs in Unions educational and employment avenues.

62. What Percent of workforce is protected by Industrial Disputes Act?

  1. < 24%
  2. > 24%
  3. < 10%
  4. > 10%

Explanation

The Industrial Disputes Act protects less than 10 percent of India’s workforce, which means that more than 90 percent of the workers are in the unorganised sector. The public sector has unionised workers with greater bargaining power and the private sector keeps the workers from joining any union and from taking up any labour issues. Indian industry remains capital intensive, resulting in high-level unemployment in the formal sector. Unemployment is steadily rising resulting in informalisation and casualisation of work.

63. What percent of villages were confirmed with Open Defecation Free (ODF) according to

National Annual Rural Sanitation Survey (2018-19)?

  1. 60.1
  2. 90.7
  3. 97.0
  4. 87.1

Explanation

Th e National Annual Rural Sanitation Survey of the Swachh Gram Mission conducted for 2018-19 has reconfirmed the Open Defecation Free (ODF) status of 90.7% of villages which were previously declared and verified as ODF by various districts and states.

64. When was Swachh Bharat Mission launched?

  1. 2016
  2. 2014
  3. 2015
  4. 2017

Explanation

65. Assertion(A): Land acquisition has become a major problem resulting in the displacement

of tribal and their land

Reason(R): Forced land acquisition by the government has led to violent unrest in some

parts of India.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Land acquisition has become a major problem resulting in the displacement of tribals and their land. India’s industrialisation is beginning to demand more and more land. Industrial land acquisition needed to be based on the consent of the local people. Acquisition needed to be preceded by compensation and welfare measures that rendered the acquisition of land for industrial purposes as a developmental endeavour. The current laws give the government substantial powers to acquire land. Forced land acquisition by the government has led to violent unrest in some parts of India.

66. After which year interstate inequalities have increased?

  1. 1991
  2. 1977
  3. 1976
  4. 1999

Explanation

The post 1991 period. As the Central government’s role in funding the State governments became less, the States needed to attract private investment. Some States have turned themselves a hub for foreign investment and some could not. This has resulted in the uneven development of States.

67. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. With more states in India coming under the influence of Regional parties, the union-state relations have become strong
  2. Regional parties are asking for more state autonomy and a greater role for the Inter-state council.
  3. Regional parties are also asking for more sharing of the finances from the centre
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

With more states in India coming under the influence of regional parties, the union-state relations have suffered a setback. Earlier the party in the centre and most of the states were same now the parties ruling the states are different and the regional parties are asking for more state autonomy and a greater role for the Inter-state council. They are also asking for more sharing of the finances from the centre (as the financial relations of the State are limited).

68. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Between 1993/94 and 1999/2000, the number of Indians living at less than a dollar a day came down from 36 percent to 26 percent
  2. Nehru point out that the number of Indians living at less than a dollar a day has come down, even though there is a substantial debate about the extent of decline in the poverty rate
  3. India has about 270 million absolutely poor people when the figure for China is about 110 million.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

Deaton and Dreze point out that the number of Indians living at less than a dollar a day has come down, even though there is a substantial debate about the extent of decline in the poverty rate. According to one widely quoted estimate, between 1993/94 and 1999/2000, the number of Indians living at less than a dollar a day came down from 36 percent to 26 percent. This means that India has about 270 million absolutely poor people when the figure for China is about 110 million.

69. Assertion(A): Human development in areas such as primary education and health leave a

lot to be desired.

Reason(R): The Dalit India, the tribal India in addition to the OBC India need to be

given more attention so as to ensure social integration and National unity

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Human development in areas such as primary education and health leave a lot to be desired. The result is that even though there has been a decline in the number of people below the poverty line, a strategy of inclusive growth would have achieved poverty alleviation more rapidly. A shift to LPG since 1990 also resulted in increasing disparities leading to extensive socio-political unrest in different parts of the country. The Dalit India, the tribal India in addition to the OBC India need to be given more attention so as to ensure social integration and National unity.

70. In which year India’s infant mortality rate had overtaken Bangladesh’s?

  1. 1991
  2. 1999
  3. 1996
  4. 1992

Explanation

India’s public health record presents a dismal picture during the reform period. The infant mortality rate declined by 30 percent in the 1980s but the same declined by only 12.5 percent in the 1990s. India’s (80/1000) infant mortality rate was lower than Bangladesh’s (91/1000) in 1990. In 1999, India’s infant mortality rate (71/1000) had overtaken Bangladesh’s (61/1000).

71. Assertion(A): India has witnessed communal violence since the time of partition

Reason(R): It is the ‘narratives of hatred’ spread by these groups that result in the

communal clashes.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

India has witnessed communal violence since the time of partition. Political parties, movements with ulterior motives, fundamental groups spread the stories of hatred among the different communities. It is the ‘narratives of hatred’ spread by these groups that result in the communal clashes. Minorities are often victims of the communal clashes and their property and livelihood are greatly affected.

72. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Caste clashes and caste discrimination continues to be a major challenge for nation building.
  2. (dis)honour killing is a major blow to the inter-caste marriages in India
  3. 33% reservation of seats for women in the parliament and assembly seats are yet to be materialised.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

Caste clashes and caste discrimination continues to be a major challenge for nation building. In spite of strict laws passed against untouchability, the practice continues in places where the caste system in pronounced. (dis)honour killing is a major blow to the inter-caste marriages in India. Women are not treated equally to men is a reality and their representation in politics is abysmally low and Violence Against Women (VAW) is increasing. 33% reservation of seats for women in the parliament and assembly seats are yet to be materialised.

73. Assertion(A): India’s industrialisation continues to be capital and knowledge-intensive at

a time when over 250 million people survive on less than a dollar a day

Reason(R): If India grows in this way it will take a longer time to eradicate poverty,

illiteracy, and malnutrition.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
  3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
  4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

The major challenge for India’s development is inclusive growth. Growth has unambiguously reduced poverty and improved the human condition in India. However, the gains of the middle and richer classes have been greater than those that went to the poorer sections of society. This is evident from the fact that reforms in areas such as telecommunications, banks, stock markets, airlines, trade and industrial policy have not been matched by agricultural and human development. India’s industrialisation continues to be capital and knowledge-intensive at a time when over 250 million people survive on less than a dollar a day. If India grows in this way it will take a longer time to eradicate poverty, illiteracy, and malnutrition. Moreover, slow progress in human development in areas such as education and health will make it tougher for India to grow in the long run. The socio-economic and political challenges highlighted above are major challenges to Nation building.

74. Which of the following development projects that are State specific?

  1. Frame 4
  2. Frame 3
  3. Frame 2
  4. Frame 6

Explanation

Frame 4 development projects that are State specific. Two development projects should target rural areas and two development projects that target urban areas.

75. When was Madras presidency created?

  1. 1884
  2. 1802
  3. 1794
  4. 1800

Explanation

In the year 1802, Lord Wellesley created the Madras Presidency. Until the second half of the 18th century, the different small Kingdoms ruled South India. The British conquest of South India led to the integration of different Kingdoms into one.

76. Which of the following parts are included in Madras Presidency?

  1. Odisha
  2. Lakshadweep
  3. Karnataka
  4. Tamil Nadu
  5. 1, 2, 3
  6. 1, 3, 4
  7. 2, 3, 4
  8. All the above

Explanation

This Madras Presidency was an administrative subdivision of British India. This administrative subdivision included the present- day Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, some parts of Odisha, Kerala, Karnataka and the Lakshadweep.

77. When was new separate State for Tamil’s was created?

  1. November 1, 1956
  2. April 1, 1956
  3. September 1, 1956
  4. March 1, 1956

Explanation

After the Independence Madras Presidency became the Madras State. Then due to the linguistically based reorganisation of Indian States on November 1, 1956, the new separate State for Tamil’s was created that was formerly known as the Madras State. Later the name of Madras State was renamed as Tamil Nadu after the great political struggle of Tamil people.

78. Whom among the following is one of the founder of South Indian Liberal Federation?

  1. Tyagaraja
  2. Periyar
  3. Rajaji
  4. All the above

Explanation

One of the problems was it gave the honoured position of national language to Hindi. This created the way for the emergence of Tamil linguistic sub-nationalism in the second decade of the 20th century. It witnessed the emergence of the non-Brahmin movement as a complex issue that included caste conflict, linguistic nationalism and class struggle. T. Madhavan, Tyagaraja, and other non-Brahmin leaders formed the South Indian Liberal Federation. Later it was popularly known as the ‘Justice Party’.

79. Between which years ‘Justice Party’ formed four out of the five ministries?

  1. 1924 to 1937
  2. 1920 to 1935
  3. 1920 to 1937
  4. 1929 to 1927

Explanation

Justice Party was had contested in the provincial elections of Madras at 1920, and it emerged victoriously and formed the government. From 1920 to 1937, it formed four out of the five ministries. Finally, it lost to Congress in the 1937 election, it never recovered.Later emerged the leadership of Periyar E.V. Ramaswamy and his ‘Selfrespect Movement’. These movements created great influence in the Tamil people’s cultural and political life. The consciousness of Tamil nationalism emerged in South India due to the impact of these movements.

80. Which movement strengthened congress organisation in Tamil country?

  1. Non- Co-operation movement
  2. Civil Dis-obedience Movement
  3. Quit India movement
  4. Salt Satyagraha

Explanation

Indian National Congress strengthened its organisation in Tamil country through the Civil- Disobedience Movement. In 1937 Congress won the Madras legislative assembly election and Rajaji became the Chief Minister.

81. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Rajaji prioritised and implemented two public policies, first one was abolishing the untouchability and the second one was adopting of Hindi as the National language.
  2. Rajaji announcement that Hindi should be a compulsory subject in schools was perceived as an insult to the non-Brahmins pride as Dravidians/Tamilians.
  3. Tamil scholars like Maraimalai Adigal, Thiru.Vi.Kalyanasundaram and others convened a lot of public meetings and created awareness among the people about the imposition of Hindi
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

Rajaji prioritised and implemented two public policies, first one was abolishing the untouchability and the second one was adopting of Hindi as the National language. Rajaji announcement that Hindi should be a compulsory subject in schools was perceived as an insult to the nonBrahmins pride as Dravidians/Tamilians. EVR Periyar and other Self-respect Movement members organised marches and massive anti-Hindi conferences. (Shiga Miwako and Karashima Noboru, Ed. 2014) Tamil scholars like Maraimalai Adigal, Thiru.Vi.Kalyanasundaram and others convened a lot of public meetings and created awareness among the people about the imposition of Hindi.

82. When did EVR Periyar organised the Dravida Nadu Conference?

  1. 1940
  2. 1939
  3. 1931
  4. 1942

Explanation

EVR Periyar extended his wholehearted support to this agitation. He raised even a slogan, ‘Tamil Nadu Tamilarukke’ (Tamil State for Tamils). He organised the Dravida Nadu Conference in 1939 and demanded the separate Independent ‘Dravida Nadu’.

83. When did organised Dravidar Kazhagam in the Salem conference?

  1. 1939
  2. 1944
  3. 1947
  4. 1956

Explanation

A consequence of this protests was the demand for the separated state for the nonBrahmin people, which also included the Tamils, Telugus, Kannadigas, Malayalees. In 1944 E.V. Ramasamy reorganised the Justice Party into Dravidar Kazhagam in the Salem conference in order to streamline the voice of the Tamils upon the social cause and for the upliftment of the Tamils. Periyar’s Salem Conference was noted for its militancy and mass arousing spirit. Now, the object of the Dravidar Kazhagam was to proclaim a sovereign independent Dravidian Republic, which would be federal in nature with four units corresponding to the linguistic divisions, each having residuary powers and autonomy of internal administration. However, the struggle for Dravida Nadu could not get the support outside the Tamil speaking territory.

84. What does the term Dakshina Pradesh mean?

  1. Separation of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
  2. Amalgamation of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
  3. Amalgamation of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
  4. Separation of Tamil Nadu and Kerala

Explanation

Rajaji initiated the creation of a new concept of political state in South India. This initiation was to counter the Dravida movement. Dakshina Pradesh means the amalgamation of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. He spread his ideology through his followers like C.Subramaniam, Bhaktvatsalam, and some others. Rajaji’s political idea was vehemently opposed by most of the political parties of South India.

85. Whom among the following opposed the idea of the State of Dakshina Pradesh?

  1. A.K.Gopalan
  2. Achutha Menon
  3. EVR Periyar
  4. Sreekantan
  5. 1, 2, 4
  6. 1, 3, 4
  7. 2, 3, 4
  8. All the above

Explanation

Sreekantan of the Revolutionary Socialist Party, Achutha Menon of Cochin Communist Party and A.K.Gopalan leader of the Travancore Communist Party strongly opposed the idea of the State of Dakshina Pradesh.

86. In which Journal E.V. Ramasamy requested all Tamils to send telegrams against the

formation of Dakshina Pradesh?

  1. Poraali
  2. Viduthalai
  3. Pithaan
  4. Kaviarasu

Explanation

E.V. Ramasamy wrote an editorial column in the press, Viduthalai and requested all Tamils to send telegrams against the formation of Dakshina Pradesh to the Chief Minister of Madras Government. Meanwhile, the people of Karnataka also opposed the concept of Rajaji, particularly Sardar Sarana Gowda of Karnataka People’s Party.

87. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Rajaji and his supporters once again raised the concept of Dakshina Pradesh at Amritsar Congress Conference in 1946
  2. There, K.Kamaraj, Chief Minister of Madras State reflected people’s resistance and stood against Dakshina Pradesh
  3. He opposed the Dakshina Pradesh concept in all the public meetings and it had aroused a great spirit among the Tamils
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

Rajaji and his supporters once again raised the concept of Dakshina Pradesh at Amritsar Congress Conference in 1956. There, K.Kamaraj, Chief Minister of Madras State reflected people’s resistance and stood against Dakshina Pradesh. He opposed the Dakshina Pradesh concept in all the public meetings and it had aroused a great spirit among the Tamils, who were ready to fight against the concept of Dakshina Pradesh.

88. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. The demand of States on linguistic basis was developed even before the independence of India under British rule.
  2. The reorganisation of the States on the basis of language, a major aspect of national consolidation and integration, came to the force almost immediately after independence
  3. 1 alone
  4. 2 alone
  5. 1, 2
  6. None

Explanation

The demand of States on linguistic basis was developed even before the independence of India under British rule. After independence, the first ten years of nation-building between 1947 and 1956 saw the issue play a decisive role again and prompted the formation of two major policy directions: one was the official language policy and other the reorganisation of States, that is, federal restructuring. (Yamada, Keiko, Karashima, Noboru (Ed),2014). The reorganisation of the States on the basis of language, a major aspect of national consolidation and integration, came to the force almost immediately after independence.

89. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. The formation of Tamil Nadu, based mainly on political trends and conceived after the linguistic status reorganisation, emerged as an offshoot of the freedom struggle of India
  2. The States Reorganisation Commission submitted the final report in 1955.
  3. According to States Reorganisation Commission, the new Madras State came into existence on 1st November 1956.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

The formation of Tamil Nadu, based mainly on political trends and conceived after the linguistic status reorganisation, emerged as an offshoot of the freedom struggle of India. The trends and development in the socio-political scene of Madras-based on the Linguistic Movement. The glory and the antiquity of Tamil language touched the minds of Tamil scholars as well as Tamil people and unified them under the new political system of independent India. The States Reorganisation Commission submitted the final report in 1955. It recommended the creation of the States of Madras, Mysore, and Kerala. According to States Reorganisation Commission, the new Madras State came into existence on 1st November 1956.

90. Which of the following Taluks are taken by State Reorganisation Commission

recommended the basis of the percentage of the people speaking Tamil?

  1. Agasteeswaram
  2. Thovalai
  3. Karur
  4. Vilavancode
  5. 1, 2, 4
  6. 2, 3, 4
  7. 1, 3, 4
  8. All the above

Explanation

The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major reform of the boundaries of India’s States and territories, organising them along linguistic lines. The State Reorganisation Commission recommended on the basis of the percentage of the people speaking Tamil, in the four taluks namely Agasteeswaram, Thovalai, Kalkulam, and Vilavancode to Tamil Nadu from the State of Travancore. The same yardstick was applied for the transfer of Shenkotta taluk to Tamil Nadu. However, while dealing with Devikulam and Peermedu (Idukki), even though the majority was Tamil speaking people and the representatives to the State assembly were Tamils. The Commission used a different yardstick and recommended to retain in Travancore – Cochin State due to geographical reasons. For the first time in history Tamil Nadu has been created as a district linguistic State.

91.Who observed fast unto his death to rename Madras State as Tamil Nadu?

  1. Ma. Po. Sivaganam
  2. Jeevanandam
  3. Sankaralinganar
  4. All the above

Explanation

Sankaralinganar, a freedom fighter and one of the disciples of Gandhi who belonged to Virudhunager demanded to rename Madras State as Tamil Nadu. He observed fast unto his death from 27 July 1956 to his last breath on 13th October 1956. The death of Sankaralinganar created a mass struggle in Madras State. College students, labourers, women, and different organisations openly participated in the movements.

92. Which Political party renamed the Madras State as ‘Tamil Nadu’?

  1. DMK
  2. DK
  3. ADMK
  4. Janata Party

Explanation

Owing to the influence of these movements, Congress lost its popularity among the people. Finally, it reflected in the 1967 general election, when Congress was totally swept away from Tamil Nadu and Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) captured political power. DMK renamed the Madras State as ‘Tamil Nadu’.

93. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. The great nation builders of modern times like Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru were against Two-Nation Theory
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru could see the perils involved in replacing English with Hindi, hence gave an assurance on the continuance of English as long as the non-Hindi people desired the same
  3. In an age of liberal democracy, peoples’ will, rights and their linguistic, cultural identities, and their economic development have to be the basis of nation building.
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

The new Indian nation evolved during the post-mutiny colonial period, through the national movement, was inspired by past experiences, and emerging ideas of democracy, liberalism and federalism. The age of monarchies were gone forever, the era of religious states too were gone. In an age of liberal democracy, peoples’ will, rights and their linguistic, cultural identities, and their economic development have to be the basis of nation building. The great nation builders of modern times like Mahatma Gandhi and Jawaharlal Nehru were against religious or cultural nationalism (Hindu Nationalism, Muslim Nationalism or Two-Nation Theory, they acknowledged the plural base of emerging new India, hence advocated a democratic liberal and federal India. However, many thinkers have pointed out that the constitution of our New India through called India a union of states did not provide adequate financial and political powers for the constituent states. Over centralization along with insistence on a single national-official language (i.e. Hindi) replacing English would erode into the cultural and linguistic identity of the constituent regions. Jawaharlal Nehru could see the perils involved in replacing English with Hindi, hence gave an assurance on the continuance of English as long as the non-Hindi people desired the same.

94. When does fiscal year begins?

  1. 1st April to 31st March
  2. 1st March to 29th February
  3. 1st January to 31st December
  4. 1st May to 31st April

Explanation

The Union Budget also known as, the ‘Annual Financial Statement’ is the account or estimation of the Indian government’s finances, i.e. receipts and expenditure for the fiscal (financial) year. The fiscal year begins from 1st April to 31st March. The Union Budget is of two types: Revenue Budget and Capital Budget.

95. Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. An association of nations involving the United Kingdom and many former British colonies are called as British Commonwealth
  2. A self-governing nation in the British Commonwealth is Dominion.
  3. The lower house of the Parliament of the United Kingdom is known as ‘Members of Parliament’
  4. 1, 2
  5. 1, 3
  6. 2, 3
  7. All the above

Explanation

The lower house of the Parliament of the United Kingdom, whose members are elected by people. These members are known as ‘Members of Parliament’. A body of representatives, who are elected by popular vote, with the objective of creating, changing, or drafting a constitution, i.e. a legal system that determines the fundamental political principles of a government is a Constituent Assembly. An association of nations involving the United Kingdom and many former British colonies that later became independent states but continue to pledge allegiance to the British Crown are British Commonwealth.

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