Envisioning a New Socio-Economic Order 12th History Lesson 9 Questions in English

12th History Lesson 9 Questions in English

9] Envisioning a New Socio-Economic Order

1. What is the total Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of Industrial Sector in India in 1950?

1. 28%
2. 13%
3. 31%
4. 22%

Explanation

In India, the industry sector only accounted for 13% of the total Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in 1950. Most manufactured consumer goods were imported. The Indian offices of major foreign companies were involved only in marketing and sales, and not in manufacturing.

2. After Independence which way was selected to achieve Economic Development?

1. Capitalist
2. Anarchist
3. Socialist
4. Feudalism

Explanation

Economic development can be achieved in many ways. One option would be to follow the free enterprise, capitalist path; the other was to follow the socialist path. India chose the latter. In fact, the Preamble to the Indian Constitution, cited in the previous lesson, stated unambiguously that India would be “a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic republic”.

3. Which among the following is not the objectives of this socialist pattern of development?

1. The reduction of inequalities
2. Reduction of labour union
3. Elimination of exploitation
4. Prevention of concentration of wealth

Explanation

The objectives of this socialist pattern of development were: the reduction of inequalities, elimination of exploitation, and prevention of concentration of wealth. Social justice meant that all citizens would have an equal opportunity to education and employment. This essentially entailed the active participation of the state in the process of development.

4. Which among the following statement is correct

1. In agriculture, social and economic justice was to be achieved through a process of landlords which would empower the cultivator. In industry, the privates would play an active role by setting up major industries under the private sector.
2. These were to be achieved through a comprehensive process of planning under Five Year Plans. These strategies had been borrowed from the Soviet experience of rapid economic development.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In agriculture, social and economic justice was to be achieved through a process of land reforms which would empower the cultivator. In industry, the state would play an active role by setting up major industries under the public sector.

5. Who among the following was a great admirer of the success of the Soviet Union in achieving rapid development?

1. Nehru
2. Gandhi
3. Vallabhbhai Patel
4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation

Nehru was a great admirer of the success of the Soviet Union in achieving rapid development, and thus the ideology on which this strategy is based is often referred to as “Nehruvian Socialism”.

6. Which among the following statement is correct

1. At the time of Independence, agriculture in India was only sector with less problems. In general, productivity was high. The total production of food grains was enough to feed the country, so that a large quantity of food grains had to be exported.
2. Nearly 70 percent of the population depended on agriculture for their livelihood. This automatically increased the income of each person to very high levels. This is a situation described as ‘Improvising employment’.
3. That is, even if many people shifted to other occupations, total production levels would remain the same, because this surplus population was not really required to sustain the activity, and was, in effect, unemployed. Given the high level of poverty among the rural population, most of them were heavily indebted to moneylenders.
4. Only 3
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

At the time of Independence, agriculture in India was beset with many problems. In general, productivity was low. The total production of food grains was not enough to feed the country, so that a large quantity of food grains had to be imported.

Nearly 80 percent of the population depended on agriculture for their livelihood. This automatically reduced the income of each person to very low levels. This is a situation described as ‘disguised unemployment’.

7. Which among the following factors attribute the backwardness of agricultural?

1. Traditional and Technology
2. Institutional and Conservative
3. Institutional and Technology
4. Traditional and Conservative

Explanation

The backwardness of agriculture could be attributed to two factors: institutional and technological. Institutional factors refer to the social and economic relations that prevailed, particularly between the land-owning classes and the cultivating classes. Technological factors relate to use of better seeds, improved methods of cultivation, use of chemical fertilizers, use of machinery like tractors and harvester combines, and provision of irrigation.

8. The government decided to tackle which drawbacks first?

1. Institutional
2. Traditional
3. Technology
4. Conservative

Explanation

The government decided to tackle the institutional drawbacks first and began a programme of land reforms to improve the conditions in agriculture. The basic assumption was that such measures would improve the efficiency of land use or productivity, apart from empowering the peasants by creating a socially just system.

9. Under the Constitution of India, agriculture was which subject?

1. Central
2. State
3. Concurrent
4. Private

Explanation

Under the Constitution of India, agriculture was a ‘state subject’, that is, each state had to pass laws relating to land reforms individually. Thus, while the basic form of land reforms was common among all the states, there was no uniformity in the specific terms of land reform legislation among the states.

10. Which among the following was part of the manifesto of the Indian National Congress party even before Independence?

1. Abolition of Brahminism
2. Abolition of English
3. Abolition of Widow remarriage
4. Abolition of Zamindari

Explanation

Abolition of Zamindari was part of the manifesto of the Indian National Congress party even before Independence.

11. Which referred to the class of landowners who had been designated during British rule as the intermediaries who paid the land revenue to the government under a Permanent Settlement?

1. Zamindar
2. Nayakas
3. Palayakar
4. Nawabs

Explanation

Zamindar referred to the class of landowners who had been designated during British rule as the intermediaries who paid the land revenue to the government under a Permanent Settlement. In public opinion, these zamindars were considered to be a decadent, extravagant and unproductive class who were living on unearned income.

12. Zamindars collected rent from whom and were obliged to remit a fixed amount to the government as land taxes?

1. Palayakars
2. Peasants
3. Militants
4. Nayaks

Explanation

Zamindars collected rent from peasants cultivating their land and were obliged to remit a fixed amount to the government as land taxes. Abolishing their privileges and restoring land to the cultivators was therefore a prime objective of the government.

13. Which among the following is not the revenue system introduced by the British?

1. Zamindari
2. Ryotwari
3. Dahshala
4. Mahalwari

Explanation

Three systems of revenue collection had been introduced by the British. They are Zamindars, Ryotwari and Mahalwari.

14. In south India, the cultivators paid the land revenue demand directly to the government under the system known as ______

1. Zamindari
2. Ryotwari
3. Mahalwari
4. All the above

Explanation

In south India, the cultivators paid the land revenue demand directly to the government under the system known as ‘ryotwari’.

15. Which system found in very small pockets of the country, where the village was collectively responsible for paying the land revenue?

1. Zamindari
2. Zabt
3. Ryotwari
4. Mahalwari

Explanation

The third system, found in very small pockets of the country, was ‘mahalwari’ where the village was collectively responsible for paying the land revenue. In Bengal and most of north India, the Permanent Settlement placed the responsibility of paying land revenue on the rentier class of zamindars.

16. Which among the following state Zamindar system was not abolished by 1949?

1. Madras
2. West Bengal
3. Assam
4. Bombay

Explanation

Most provinces in India had enacted laws abolishing the zamindari system even before the Constitution was framed. By 1949, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Madras, Assam and Bombay had introduced such legislation.

17. Where the Permanent Settlement was first introduced in British India?

1. Madras
2. Bombay
3. Assam
4. West Bengal

Explanation

West Bengal, where the Permanent Settlement was first introduced, the act was passed only in 1955. Land taken away from the zamindars was distributed among the tenants. The provincial legislatures also recommended the amount of compensation to be paid to the zamindars.

18. Which Amendment pre-empted the right of zamindars to question the takeover of their land or the value of the compensation?

1. First amendment and Third amendment
2. Third amendment and Fourth amendment
3. First amendment and Fourth amendment
4. First amendment and Sixth amendment

Explanation

Zamindars in various parts of the country challenged the constitutionality of the zamindari abolition laws in court. The government then passed two amendments to the Constitution, the First Amendment in 1951 and the Fourth Amendment in 1955, which pre-empted the right of zamindars to question the takeover of their land or the value of the compensation.

19. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Finally, zamindari abolition was completed by 1956, and was possibly the most successful of the land reforms. About 30 lakh tenants and sharecroppers gained ownership of 62 lakh hectares of land. The total compensation actually paid to the zamindars amounted to `16,420 lakhs (which amounted to only about one-fourth of the total compensation amount due).
2. In sum, the reform achieved a very high part of the original objective. zamindars kept sufficient land with them and landless people take over their land claiming that this land was under their ‘Constitutional rights’. Thus, while the institution of zamindari was dismantled, the landless people continued in possession of vast tracts of land.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In sum, however, the reform only achieved a very small part of the original objective. Many zamindars were able to evict their tenants and take over their land claiming that this land was under their ‘personal cultivation’. Thus, while the institution of zamindari was dismantled, many landowners continued in possession of vast tracts of land.

20. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Tenancy refers to an arrangement under which land was taken on lease from landowners by cultivators under specific terms. Not all tenants were landless peasants. Many small landowners who wanted to cultivate additional land leased out land from other landowners.
2. Some richer landowners also took additional land for cultivation on lease. In general, the rent was paid in kind, as a share of the produce from the land. It was common for large landowners to lease out the land to tenants. Usually these tenancy arrangements continued for long periods of time.
3. The rents received by the landowners generally amounted to about 50% or more of the produce from the land, which was very high. Tenancy was a customary practice and agreements were rarely recorded. Thus, tenants of long-standing were almost never deprived of tenancy rights. However, tenants could also be evicted at short notice, and tenants therefore always lived under some uncertainty.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

21. Which among the following was the objective of Tenancy Reform?

1. To Exceed the tax paid by citizen by improvising Agricultural areas.
2. To empower the cultivators by protecting them against the landowners.
3. To improve Exports of Agricultural product and reduction in the Imports of Agricultural product
4. To wide spread of land to all landless people

Explanation

Tenancy reform was undertaken with two objectives. One was to empower the cultivators by protecting them against the landowners. The other was to improve the efficiency of land use, based on the assumption that tenancy was inefficient. t. Landowners rarely had any incentive to invest in improving the land, and were interested only in deriving an income from their land. Tenants, who had no ownership rights and were liable to pay high rents, had neither the incentive nor surplus money to invest in land.

22. Which among the following is not the Aim of Tenancy reform legislation?

1. To regulate the rent
2. To compensate landlord losses
3. To secure the rights of the tenant
4. To confer ownership rights on the tenants by expropriating the land of the land owners

Explanation

Tenancy reform legislation was aimed at achieving three ends: (i) to regulate the rent; (ii) to secure the rights of the tenant; (iii) to confer ownership rights on the tenants by expropriating the land of the land owners.

23. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Legislation was passed in the centre regulating the rent at one-third to half of the produce. This was implemented successfully throughout the India. The agricultural sector had a surplus of labour whereas land was a resource in excess supply.
2. Price controls did not work in a situation when the demand exceeded the supply. All that happened was that rent rates were pushed under the table without any official record. Laws to secure the rights of the tenant and to make tenancy heritable were equally unsuccessful. Tenancy agreements were made orally, and were unrecorded.
3. The tenant thus always had to live with the uncertainty that their land could be resumed by the landlord any time. When tenancy reform laws were announced many landowners claimed to have taken back their land for ‘personal cultivation’ and that tenants were only being employed as labour to work the land.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Legislation was passed in the states regulating the rent at one-fourth to one-third of the produce. But this could never be implemented successfully. The agricultural sector had a surplus of labour whereas land was a resource in short supply.

24. Land reform measures introduced in which state met with reasonable success?

1. West Bengal
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Maharashtra
4. Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

Land reform measures initiated in Kerala and West Bengal met with reasonable success. While abolition of landlordism was remarkably successful, conferment of ownership rights to tenants had mixed results.

25. Which refers to the maximum amount of land that could be legally owned by individuals?

1. Land Compiling
2. Land Ceiling
3. Land Allocating
4. Land scaling

Explanation

Land ceiling refers to the maximum amount of land that could be legally owned by individuals. Laws were passed after the 1950s to enforce it.

26. When Land Ceiling was implemented in Tamil Nadu?

1. 1958
2. 1952
3. 1961
4. 1955

Explanation

In Tamil Nadu Land Ceiling was implemented first in 1961. Until 1972, there was a ceiling on the extent of land that a ‘landholder’ could own. After 1972, the unit was changed to a ‘family’. This meant that the landowners could claim that each member of the family owned a part of the land which would be much less than the prescribed limit under the ceiling.

27. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Deciding the extent of land under land ceiling was a complex exercise, since land was not of uniform quality. Distinctions had to be made between irrigated and unirrigated dry land, and single crop and double crop producing land.
2. At the same time, exemptions from the Act were granted to certain categories of land such as orchards, horticultural land, grazing land, land belonging to religious and charitable trusts, and sugarcane plantations.
3. These exemptions were not used to evade the land ceiling acts but reported cases of manipulation of land records adversely impacted the otherwise laudable initiative. Ultimately, only about 15 lakh hectares of land was taken over as surplus land. This was distributed to about 5 lakh tenants–an average of a little over 3 hectare per tenant.
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

These exemptions were also used to evade the land ceiling acts and reported cases of manipulation of land records adversely impacted the otherwise laudable initiative. Ultimately, only about 65 lakh hectares of land was taken over as surplus land. This was distributed to about 55 lakh tenants–an average of a little over 1 hectare per tenant.

28. Bhoodan was started by whom to persuade large landowners to surrender their surplus land voluntarily attracted much public attention?

1. Vinoba Bhave
2. Abdul Ghaffar Khan
3. Dhondo Keshav Karve
4. Baba Amte

Explanation

Efforts like Bhoodan started by Vinoba Bhave to persuade large landowners to surrender their surplus land voluntarily attracted much public attention.

29. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Land reform legislation has overall not been a great success. In economic terms, the dream of an agricultural sector prospering under peasant cultivators with secure ownership rights has remained just that – a dream – and there was no visible improvement in efficiency.
2. In more recent years, when agriculture has grown due to technological progress, a more inefficient land market is seen to be operating which is more conducive for short term growth. In terms of social justice, the abolition of the semi-feudal system of zamindari has been ineffective. But land reform measures have also made the peasants more politically aware of their rights and empowered them.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In more recent years, when agriculture has grown due to technological progress, a more efficient land market is seen to be operating which is more conducive for long term growth. In terms of social justice, the abolition of the semi-feudal system of zamindari has been effective. The land reform measures have also made the peasants more politically aware of their rights and empowered them.

30. High Yielding Variety (HYV) of which seeds was adopted in 1965 in select areas well-endowed with irrigation?

1. Corn
2. Wheat
3. Maize
4. Spice

Explanation

By the middle of the 1960s the scenario with regard to food production was very grim. Land reforms had made no impact on agricultural production. The government therefore turned to technological alternatives to develop agriculture. High Yielding Variety (HYV) of seeds of wheat and rice was adopted in 1965 in select areas well-endowed with irrigation.

31. The initial experimental projects led to the large-scale adoption of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds across the country is known as _____

1. White revolution
2. Green revolution
3. Brown revolution
4. Blue revolution

Explanation

The success of the initial experimental projects led to the large-scale adoption of HYV seeds across the country. This is generally referred to as the Green Revolution.

32. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Unlike traditional agriculture, cultivation of HYV seeds required only less amount of water and use of tractors, chemical fertilizers and pesticides. This eliminated an enormous demand for chemical fertilizers and pesticides, and these industries grew as well
2. Finally, within twenty years, India achieved self-sufficiency in food production. Total rice production increased from 35 million tonnes in 1960–61 to 104 million tonnes in 2011–12. The increase in wheat production was even more impressive, from 11 million tonnes to 94 million tonnes during the same period. Productivity also increased.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Unlike traditional agriculture, cultivation of HYV seeds required a lot of water and use of tractors, chemical fertilizers and pesticides. This also created an enormous demand for chemical fertilizers and pesticides, and these industries grew as well.

33. The stored food grains in India were made available under whom to ensure food security for the people?

1. Grains Distribution system
2. Cultural Distribution system
3. Public Distribution system
4. State Distribution system

Explanation

The stored food grains were made available under the Public Distribution System (PDS) and to ensure food security for the people.

34. In which warehouse the surplus food grain brought from farmers are stored that build by Government?

1. Food Corporation of India
2. Food and Agricultural Organization
3. Institution of Charted Accountants of India
4. Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry

Explanation

A large reserve stock of food grain was built up by the government through buying the surplus food grain from the farmers and storing this in warehouses of the Food Corporation of India (FCI).

35. Which among the following statement regarding Green Revolution id correct

1. Another positive feature has been the sustained increase in the production of milk and eggs. Due to this, the food basket of all income groups became more diversified. While the Green Revolution has been very successful in terms of increasing food production in India, it has also had some negative outcomes.
2. First of all, it increased the disparities between the well-endowed and the less well-endowed regions. Over the decades, there has been a tendency among farmers to use chemical fertilizers and pesticides in excessive quantities resulting in environmental problems. There is now a move to go back to organic farming in many parts of the country.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

36. Which is defined as the level of expenditure required to purchase food grains to supply the recommended calorie level to sustain a person?

1. Growth line
2. Poverty line
3. Economic line
4. Life Expectancy line

Explanation

The poverty line is defined as the level of expenditure required to purchase food grains to supply the recommended calorie level to sustain a person. The assumption that development would solve the problem of poverty was not realised, and nearly half the population was found to be living below the poverty line by 1970s.

37. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Though the percentage of the persons below the poverty line did not increase, as the population grew, the number of persons living below the poverty line kept increasing.
2. Poverty prevailed mostly in urban areas. Because since nearly one-third of the population lived in urban areas, urban poverty was a much more critical problem requiring immediate attention.
3. Poverty levels were also much higher among specific social groups such as small and marginal farmers, landless labourers and depressed classes in resource poor regions without irrigation and with poor soil, etc.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Poverty prevailed both in rural and urban areas. But since nearly three-fourths of the population lived in rural areas, rural poverty was a much more critical problem requiring immediate attention.

38. Which among the following is not meant for Rural Development program?

1. Community Development Programmes
2. Reviving local institutions like Panchayati Raj
3. Targeted programmes aimed at specific groups such as small and marginal farmers
4. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana

Explanation

A whole range of rural development programmes was introduced by the government to tackle rural poverty. These included Community Development Programmes, reviving local institutions like Panchayati Raj, and targeted programmes aimed at specific groups such as small and marginal farmers. The thrust was on providing additional sources of income to the rural households to augment their earnings from agriculture.

39. When consolidated rural development programme called Integrated Rural Development Programme was introduced?

1. 1972
2. 1980
3. 1991
4. 1978

Explanation

In 1980 a consolidated rural development programme called Integrated Rural Development Programme was introduced. The purpose was to provide rural households with assets which would improve their economic position, so that they would be able to come out of poverty. These could be improvements to the land, supply of cows or goats for dairying or help to set up small shops or other trade-related businesses.

40. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) introduced in all the 3011 blocks in the country, the target was to provide assistance to 300 families in each block over ten years (1980–1990), which would reach a total of 25 million families.
2. The capital cost of the assets provided was covered by subsidies (divided equally between the Centre and the States) and loans. The subsidy varied according to the economic situation of the family receiving assistance.
3. For small farmers, the subsidy component was 25%, 33.3% for marginal farmers and agricultural labourers, and 50% for tribal households. Banks were to give loans to the selected households to cover the balance of the cost of the asset. About 53.5 million households were covered under the programme till 1999.
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) introduced in all the 5011 blocks in the country, the target was to provide assistance to 600 families in each block over five years (1980–1985), which would reach a total of 15 million families.

41. What was the percentage accounted for Dairy Animals in assets provide by Integrated Rural Development Programme?

1. 24%
2. 35%
3. 50%
4. 40%

Explanation

Dairy animals accounted for 50% of the assets, non-farm activities for 25% and minor irrigation works for about 15%. The functioning and the effects of IRDP were assessed by many economists as well as government bodies. Many studies were conducted about the end result of this programme.

42. Which among the following was not the major issue of Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)?

1. Lack of proper selection procedures for identification of beneficiaries
2. Improper calculation of population distribution areas
3. Insufficient investment per household
4. Absence of post implementation audits of the scheme

Explanation

Lack of proper selection procedures for identification of beneficiaries, insufficient investment per household, absence of post implementation audits of the scheme, regional disparities in lifting the identified beneficiaries above the poverty line was a major issue.

43. When Integrated Rural Development Programme was restructured as a programme to promote self-employment of the rural poor due to its limited success?

1. 2001
2. 1999
3. 1995
4. 2004

Explanation

Considering the limited success achieved by the Integrated Rural Development programme it was restructured in 1999 as a programme to promote self-employment of the rural poor.

44. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. Over the years, due to concerted efforts, the percentage of households below the poverty line has come down substantially in India. It is now widely recognised that eradicating rural poverty can be achieved only by expanding the scope for agricultural employment.
2. Many programmes to generate additional employment had been introduced over the years. Many were merged with the employment guarantee scheme, which is now the biggest programme on this front in the country.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Over the years, due to concerted efforts, the percentage of households below the poverty line has come down substantially in India. It is now widely recognised that eradicating rural poverty can be achieved only by expanding the scope for non-agricultural employment.

45. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act passed in 2005 subsequently renamed after whom?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Vallabhbhai Patel
3. Chhatrapati Sivaji
4. Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (subsequently renamed MGNREGA after Mahatma Gandhi) was passed in 2005, with the aim of providing livelihood security to poor rural households.

46. In MGNREGA the livelihood security to poor rural households was to be achieved by giving at least how many days of wage employment each year?

1. 150 days
2. 75 days
3. 100 days
4. 200 days

Explanation

The livelihood security to poor rural households was to be achieved by giving at least 100 days of wage employment each year to adult members of every household willing to do unskilled manual work. This would provide a cushion to poor rural households which could not get any work in the lean agricultural season which lasted for about three months each year.

47. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The earlier targeted programmes of rural development were applicable to all rural households, which had led to several complaints that ineligible families had been selected. MGNREGA, however, is based on the identification of below poverty line families.
2. The reasoning is that it is a self-targeting scheme, because persons with education or from more affluent backgrounds would not come forward to do manual work at minimum wages. The earlier employment generation programmes did not give the rural poor any right to demand and get work.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The earlier targeted programmes of rural development were based on the identification of below poverty line families, which had led to several complaints that ineligible families had been selected. MGNREGA, however, is applicable to all rural households.

48. Who implement the programme in Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act?

1. Gram Panchayats
2. Legislative Councils
3. Civil Servants
4. Public Word Department

Explanation

The significant feature of this Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is that they have the legal right to demand work. The programme is implemented by Gram Panchayats. The applicants have to apply for this work and are provided with job cards.

49. After applying for work in MGNREGA the work is to be provided by the local authorities within how many days?

1. 10 days
2. 15 days
3. 20 days
4. 35 days

Explanation

After applying for work in MGNREGA the work is to be provided by the local authorities within 15 days. If not, the applicant is entitled to an unemployment allowance.

50. In MGNREGA the work site should be located within how many kilometres of the house of the applicant?

1. Five
2. Ten
3. Fifteen
4. Twenty

Explanation

In MGNREGA work site should be located within five kilometres of the house of the applicant.

51. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Native contractors are to be involved. This is to avoid the profits which will be taken by the urbans thus cutting into the wages. The ratio of wages to capital investment should be 50:50. One-fourth of the workers would be women.
2. As with all government programmes, many studies were conducted regarding the proper implementation of MGNREGA. On the positive side, agricultural wages have gone up due to the improved bargaining power of labour.
3. This has also reduced the migration of agricultural workers to urban areas during the lean period or during droughts. One of the most important benefits is that women are participating in the works in large numbers and have been empowered by the programme.
4. Only 3
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

No contractors are to be involved. This is to avoid the profits which will be taken by the middlemen thus cutting into the wages. The ratio of wages to capital investment should be 60:40. One-third of the workers would be women.

52. Which among the following statement is Incorrect

1. Wages of the workers are paid directly into their hands before Gram panchayat to ensure transparency and hassle – free transfer of payments. women would be paid more wages compared to men to improve women empowerment.
2. The involvement of civil society organisations, non-governmental organisations and political representatives, and a more responsive attitude of the civil servants have improved the functioning of MGNREGA in states like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Wages of the workers are paid directly into bank accounts or post office accounts to ensure transparency and hassle – free transfer of payments. Men and women would be paid the same wage.

53. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Between 2006 and 2012, around `1,10, 000 crores had been distributed directly as wage payment under the programme, generating 1200 crore person-days of employment.
2. In spite of many shortcomings, the functioning of the programme has improved due to higher levels of consciousness among the rural poor and concerned civil society organisations.
3. Though many critics feel that the high expenditure involved in the programme increases the fiscal deficit, the programme remains popular and nearly one-fourth of all rural households participate in the programme each year.
4. Only 3
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

54. Which model stressed a model of growth with village and cottage industries as the ideal way to produce consumer goods, which would eliminate rural poverty and unemployment?

1. Nehruvian model
2. Ambedkar model
3. Gandhian model
4. Patel model

Explanation

The Gandhian model stressed a model of growth with village and cottage industries as the ideal way to produce consumer goods, which would eliminate rural poverty and unemployment.

55. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. India was committed to the idea of promoting rapid industrial growth for economic development. Development can be achieved through several pathways.
2. In a country like India with a large population where many raw materials were grown or were available, processing industries which were more labour intensive would have also led to industrial growth.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

56. The government adopted which model of focusing on large scale, heavy industry to promote wide-ranging industrial development?

1. Nehruvian model
2. Ambedkar model
3. Gandhian model
4. Patel model

Explanation

The government adopted the Nehruvian model of focusing on large scale, heavy industry to promote wide-ranging industrial development.

57. In keeping with the basic principle of a “socialistic society”, who would play a major role in developing the industrial sector through setting up units wholly owned?

1. Private
2. Central
3. State
4. All the above

Explanation

In keeping with the basic principle of a “socialistic society”, the state would play a major role in developing the industrial sector through setting up units wholly owned In keeping with the basic principle of a “socialistic society”, the state would play a major role in developing the industrial sector through setting up units wholly owned.

58. The social purpose that would be achieved by Nehruvian model of development was to restrict whose capital?

1. Union
2. Private
3. Labour
4. Foreign

Explanation

The social purpose that would be achieved by this model of development was to restrict private capital which was considered to be exploitative and excessively profit-oriented, which benefited a small class of capitalists.

59. When Industrial first policy statement was made in India?

1. 1952
2. 1948
3. 1961
4. 1954

Explanation

A series of Industrial Policy statements were adopted to promote these objectives. The first policy statement was made in 1948.

60. The first Industrial policy statement classified industries into how categories?

1. Four
2. Six
3. Seven
4. Twelve

Explanation

The first Industrial policy statement classified industries into four categories. They are 1. Strategic industry 2. Industries in both the public and private sectors 3. Industries in the private sector 4. Industries of national importance under government control

61. Which among the following Industry is not Strategic industries which would be state monopolies?

1. Atomic energy
2. Railways
3. Arms and Ammunition
4. Defence equipment

Explanation

Strategic industries which would be state monopolies (atomic energy, railways, arms and ammunition.

62. How many industries of national importance are under government control?

1. 24
2. 18
3. 14
4. 28

Explanation

18 industries of national importance under government control (heavy machinery, fertilizer, heavy chemicals, defence equipment, etc.)

63. The most definitive policy statement was the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 which classified industries into how categories?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Six

Explanation

The most definitive policy statement was the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 which classified industries into three categories: Schedule A industries were under the monopoly of the state; Schedule B industries, the state could start new units but the private sector could also set up or expand their units; Schedule C were the remaining industries.

64. The Industrial Development and Regulation Act of 1951 was an important instrument for controlling which sector?

1. Private sector
2. Public sector
3. Foreign sector
4. State owned sectors

Explanation

The Industrial Development and Regulation Act of 1951 was an important instrument for controlling the private sector. This Act stipulated that no new industrial units could be set up, nor the capacity of existing units expanded without a licence or permit from the government.

65. The Policy Statement of 1977 was framed by which government?

1. Congress government
2. Communist party of India
3. Samajwadi government
4. Janata government

Explanation

The Policy Statement of 1977 was framed by the short-lived Janata government which was aimed at promoting rural, village and small-scale industries.

66. Which policy statement encouraged large industrial houses to start operations in rural and backward areas to reduce regional imbalances in development?

1. The Policy Statement of 1982
2. The Policy Statement of 1977
3. The Policy Statement of 1973
4. The Policy Statement of 1987

Explanation

The Policy Statement of 1973 encouraged large industrial houses to start operations in rural and backward areas to reduce regional imbalances in development.

67. The Policy Statement of 1980 was announced which government also aimed at promoting balanced growth?

1. Congress government
2. Communist party of India
3. Samajwadi government
4. Janata government

Explanation

The Policy Statement of 1980 was announced by the Congress government which also aimed at promoting balanced growth. Otherwise all these statements continued the ideology of a strong public sector owned by the state and control over the private sector and especially the large business houses.

68. Which among the following statement regarding Industrial policy is correct

1. There were also other interventions which intruded into the market economy. For instance, inputs produced in the private sector like cement were rationed, and permits had to be obtained even for private construction of houses.
2. The manufacture of consumer goods was severely restricted under the licensing policy. This was partly an expression of the ideology of reducing inequalities in consumption between the affluent and weaker sections of society.
3. But it was also a way to ensure that scarce resources like steel, cement etc. would be used in strategic industries for the long-term development of the economy. Many important industries and services were nationalised. These included coal mines, petroleum companies, banking and insurance services.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

69. How many public sector enterprises in India in 1951?

1. Two
2. Five
3. Seven
4. Ten

Explanation

There were only five public sector enterprises in India in 1951. By 2012, this number had increased to 225. The capital investment increased from `29 crores in 1951 to 7.3 lakh crores in 2012.

70. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The setting up of public sector enterprises in heavy industry was again dictated by two considerations. First, at the ideological level, the government was committed to a socialistic pattern of development which involved a high degree of state control over the economy
2. But at a more practical level, the government had to take over the responsibility for the establishment of heavy industrial units which required a very high level of investment. These were known as “long gestation” projects, that is, it would take many years before such units would be able to start production.
3. In the 1950s, the private sector has the resources or the willingness to enter into such investment. Steel plants in Bhilai, Rourkela, Durgapur and Bokaro, engineering plants like Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL) and Hindustan Machine Tools were all set up in the 1950s in collaboration with Indian Government which provided the technical support.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In the 1950s, the private sector did not have the resources or the willingness to enter into such investment. Steel plants in Bhilai, Rourkela, Durgapur and Bokaro, engineering plants like Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL) and Hindustan Machine Tools were all set up in the 1950s in collaboration with Britain, Germany and Russia which provided the technical support.

71. Where Bharat Heavy Electricals (BHEL) was first set up in India?

1. Trichy
2. Kanpur
3. Bhopal
4. Pune

Explanation

Units which did not have to be located near raw material sources were set up in backward areas to reduce regional disparities in industrial and economic development. BHEL was first set up in Bhopal, and later in Tiruchirappalli, Hyderabad and Haridwar.

72. In which among the following state Steel plants were not set up in the relatively backward belt?

1. West Bengal
2. Kerala
3. Orissa
4. Bihar

Explanation

Steel plants were set up in the relatively backward belt of Orissa, Bihar and West Bengal. Public sector enterprises also contributed to the national exchequer because their profits accrued in part to the central government. Thus, the growth of the public sector served many economic and social purposes, in addition to creating industrial capacity in the country.

73. Which among the following statement is correct

1. By 1991 it was clear that public sector enterprises were facing severe problems. While on the whole they were showing a profit, nearly half of the profit was contributed by the petroleum units. Many were making continuous losses.
2. Part of the problem lay in the expansion of the private sector into non-strategic areas like tourism, hotels, consumer goods (for instance, in the 1970s, television sets were produced only by private sector companies) and so on.
3. There were many factors which contributed to the performance of public sector enterprises. Difference of opinions were expressed regarding the decision on location of those enterprises. Delays in construction resulted in cost overrun, so that the units were overcapitalized.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Part of the problem lay in the expansion of the public sector into non-strategic areas like tourism, hotels, consumer goods (for instance, in the 1970s, television sets were produced only by public sector companies) and so on.

74. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. Public sector units were also overstaffed, though the technology of heavy industries did not require so many workers. This increased the operating cost of the units. Recognising all these problems, the government began a programme of disinvestment of the loss-making and nonstrategic units in 1991.
2. In spite of all the shortcomings, the strategy of industrialisation by concentrating on building up long-term industrial capacity through the establishment of heavy industries has been successful in making India into a modern, industrial economy.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

75. Which year the government announced a shift in its industrial policy to remove controls and licences, moving to a liberalised economy to the private sector?

1. 1992
2. 1993
3. 1991
4. 1990

Explanation

Finally, in 1991 the Indian government announced a shift in its industrial policy to remove controls and licences, moving to a liberalised economy permitting a much larger role to the private sector. The share of the public sector was to be reduced through a policy of disinvestment and closure of sick units.

76. Which among the following statement regarding Liberalisation: Industrial Policy Statement 1991 is correct

1. On the positive side, liberalisation and globalisation have resulted in a significant decrease in income disparities between the top income groups and the lower income groups. The removal of ceilings on corporate salaries has narrowed the disparities between the salaried class of corporate executives and wage earners
2. On the negative side, liberalisation has certainly made India a more attractive destination for foreign investment. State governments are frustrated to advertise that they are relaxing restrictions to improve the ease of doing business in their state. All this has created a general air of prosperity which is reflected in the growth statistics of the economy as a whole
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

On the positive side, liberalisation has certainly made India a more attractive destination for foreign investment. State governments are keen to advertise that they are relaxing restrictions to improve the ease of doing business in their state. All this has created a general air of prosperity which is reflected in the growth statistics of the economy as a whole.

On the negative side, liberalisation and globalisation have resulted in a significant increase in income disparities between the top income groups and the lower income groups. The removal of ceilings on corporate salaries has widened the disparities between the salaried class of corporate executives and wage earners.

77. In Industrial Policy Statement 1991 which sector has very limited potential for additional employment?

1. Informal sector
2. Formal sector
3. Foreign sector
4. Both Formal and Informal sector

Explanation

The formal sector has very limited potential for additional employment and most of the new employment is generated in the informal sector, and disparities have also increased across these two sectors.

78. Which economists are not happy with the level of liberalisation?

1. Lefties
2. Righties
3. Liberals
4. All the above

Explanation

However, neither the advocates of a free economy nor leftist economists are happy with the level of liberalisation. The former wants more free play of market forces to eradicate imbalances and checks to progress which are still in place. Some economists expressed their concern regarding abdication of state responsibility of ensuring and promoting social justice and welfare by allowing free play to private sector.

79. India followed the example which country in planning for development through five-year plans?

1. USA
2. UK
3. USSR
4. Japan

Explanation

India followed the example of the USSR in planning for development through five-year plans. The Planning Commission was set up in 1950 to formulate plans for developing the economy. Each Plan assessed the performance of the economy and the resources available for future development.

80. Till now there have been twelve Five Year Plans completed in addition to how many one-year plans?

1. Three
2. Two
3. One
4. Five

Explanation

The First Five Year Plan covered the period 1951–56. Till now there have been twelve Five Year Plans in addition to three one-year plans between 1966 and 1969.

81. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Five year plan

1. The proposed outlays for a Plan take both private and public sector outlays into account. The total outlay proposed for the First Plan was `3870 crores. By the Eleventh Plan, it had crossed `36.44 lakh crores, which is an indication of the extent to which the Indian economy had grown in less than sixty years.
2. Between the Second and Sixth Plans, public sector accounted for 60 to 70% of the total plan outlay. But since then, the share of the public sector gradually came down, and private sector began to dominate in total plan outlay.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

82. The First Plan (1951–56) focused on developing which sector?

1. Small scale industry
2. Heavy industry
3. Transport
4. Agricultural

Explanation

The First Plan (1951–56) focused on developing agriculture, especially increasing agricultural production. The allocation for Agriculture and Irrigation accounted for 31% of the total outlay. After this, the emphasis shifted to industry, and the share of agriculture in total outlay hovered between 20 and 24%. By the Eleventh Plan it had come down to less than 20%.

83. The Second Plan (1956–61), commonly referred to as what plan?

1. Meghnad plan
2. Mahalanobis plan
3. Ramanujan plan
4. Sahni plan

Explanation

The Second Plan (1956–61), commonly referred to as the Mahalanobis Plan, stressed the development of heavy industry for achieving economic growth. The share of industry in Plan outlay was only 6% in the First Plan, and increased to about 24% after the Second Plan. But the share has been declining since the Sixth Plan, perhaps because the major investments in the public sector had been completed.

84. The first two Plans had set fairly modest targets of growth at about 4%, which economists described as the _____

1. Jew rate of growth
2. Monk rate of growth
3. Hindu rate of growth
4. Secular rate of growth

Explanation

The first two Plans had set fairly modest targets of growth at about 4%, which economists described as the “Hindu rate of growth”. These growth rates were achieved so that the first two Plans were considered to have been successful. The targets in subsequent plans were not achieved due to a variety of factors.

85. From which Five year plan the emphasis was on poverty alleviation, so that social objectives were introduced into the planning exercise?

1. Sixth plan
2. Fourth plan
3. Seventh plan
4. Third plan

Explanation

From the Fourth Plan (1969–74) the emphasis was on poverty alleviation, so that social objectives were introduced into the planning exercise. The targeted growth rates were reached from the Sixth Plan onwards.

86. The economy was liberalised during the which Five Year Plan?

1. Sixth
2. Eighth
3. Tenth
4. Ninth

Explanation

The economy was liberalised during the Eighth Five Year Plan (1992–97). Since then, the growth rates have been in excess of 7% (except for a slowdown in the Ninth Plan). There has been considerable emphasis on growth with justice, and inclusive and sustainable growth.

87. In 2015, the Planning Commission was wound up and replaced by what?

1. NITI Aayog
2. National Development council
3. National Integration council
4. Lokpal

Explanation

Twelve five-year plans have been made between 1951 and 2017. Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-2017) was the last plan. In 2015, the Planning Commission was wound up and replaced by the NITI Aayog.

88. Which among the following is wrong about achievements of Five-Year Plans?

1. The expansion of the economy.
2. The significant growth in national and per capita income
3. Increase in industrial production and more diversified economy.
4. Increased use of traditional inputs in agriculture and increase in agricultural production

Explanation

The Achievements of Five-year plans are 1. The expansion of the economy 2. The significant growth in national and per capita income 3. Increase in industrial production 4. Increased use of modern inputs in agriculture and increase in agricultural production 5. A more diversified economy.

89. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Education and health constitute the social sectors, and the status of education and health indicators are yardsticks for assessing the level of social development in a country. Literacy levels have increased in India from 18.3% in 1951 to 74% in 2011.
2. Female literacy still overtakes the male literacy rate at 84% as compared to 82% among men. There has been a great increase in the number of schools from the primary to senior high school level and in the growth of institutions of higher learning.
3. In 2014 – 15 there were 12.72 lakh primary and upper primary schools, 2.45 lakh secondary and higher secondary schools, 38,498 colleges and 43 Central Universities, 316 State Universities, 122 Deemed Universities and 181 State Private Universities in the country.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Female literacy still lags behind the male literacy rate at 65% as compared to 82% among men. There has been a great increase in the number of schools from the primary to senior high school level and in the growth of institutions of higher learning.

90. Which among the following is not the program initiated by government related to Education?

1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
2. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan
3. Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan
4. Pradhan Mantri Krishi Shiksha Yojana

Explanation

There are great inter-regional variations in the drop-out and enrolment rates, so that backward states and regions have the poorest record on school education. Various initiatives are being taken by the government to such as Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and the recently integrated scheme of Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan to redress the issue of dropouts.

91. Which was the only science research institute in India before Independence?

1. Indian Institute of Technology Madras
2. Birla Institute of Technology and Science
3. Indian Institute of Science
4. Indian Institute of Technology Delhi

Explanation

India has made great strides in developing institutions of scientific research and technology. The only science research institute in India before Independence was the Indian Institute of Science (IISc) established in 1909.

92. Where Indian Institute of Science (IISc) established in 1909?

1. Madras
2. Bangalore
3. Calcutta
4. Delhi

Explanation

The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) established in 1909 in Bangalore with funding from J.R.D. Tata and the Maharaja of Mysore.

93. The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) was set up in 1945 on the initiative of whom?

1. Homi J Bhabha
2. Vikram Sarabhai
3. Lal Bahadur Shastri
4. Raja Ramanna

Explanation

The Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) was set up in 1945 on the initiative of Homi J. Bhabha, with some funding from the Tatas. It was intended to promote research in mathematics and pure sciences.

94. Where the National Chemical Laboratory, the first institutes set up in India around the time of Independence?

1. New Delhi
2. Pune
3. Kanpur
4. Mysore

Explanation

The National Chemical Laboratory, Pune were the first institutes set up in India around the time of Independence.

95. Where the National Physics Laboratory, the first institutes set up in India around the time of Independence?

1. Madras
2. Bangalore
3. Kanpur
4. New Delhi

Explanation

The National Physics Laboratory, New Delhi were the first institutes set up in India around the time of Independence. Since then there has been a steady increase in the number of institutes doing research in pure sciences, ranging from astrophysics, geology/geo-physics, cellular and molecular biology, mathematical sciences and so on.

96. Which is the umbrella organisation under which most of the scientific research institutions function?

1. UGC
2. CSIR
3. NTA
4. CSR

Explanation

The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) is the umbrella organisation under which most of the scientific research institutions function. The CSIR also advances research in applied fields like machinery, drugs, planes etc.

97. Which is the nodal agency for the development of nuclear science which is strategically important, focusing both on nuclear power generation and nuclear weapons?

1. Atomic Energy Commission
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. Board of Radiation and Isotope Technology
4. BHAVINI

Explanation

The Atomic Energy Commission is the nodal agency for the development of nuclear science which is strategically important, focusing both on nuclear power generation and nuclear weapons. The Atomic Energy Commission also funds several institutes of pure science research.

98. Which is the coordinating agency for the research done not only in basic agriculture, but also associated activities like fishery, forests, dairy, plant genetics, bio-technology and varieties of crops?

1. NABARD
2. ICAR
3. NBA
4. NPCIL

Explanation

Agriculture is another area where there has been a significant expansion of research and development. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is the coordinating agency for the research done not only in basic agriculture, but also associated activities like fishery, forests, dairy, plant genetics, bio-technology, varieties of crops like rice, potato, tubers, fruits and pest control.

99. How many agricultural universities are there in Tamil Nadu?

1. Three
2. Six
3. Seven
4. Nine

Explanation

Agricultural universities are also actively engaged in teaching and research on agricultural practices. There are 3 agricultural universities in Tamil Nadu.

100. Where the first Indian Institute of Technology were located?

1. Kanpur
2. Madras
3. Kharagpur
4. Delhi

Explanation

Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs) were set up as centres of excellence in different fields of engineering. The first IIT was located in Kharagpur, followed by Delhi, Bombay, Kanpur and Madras (Chennai).

101. Match the following Institutions with its present numbers of Institution in India

List I List II

1. Agricultural University 1. 31
2. Indian Institutes of Technology 2. 67
3. National Institutes of Technology 3. 25
4. Indian Institutes of Information Technology 4. 23
5. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
8. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

Explanation

There are now 23 IITs in the country, in addition to 31 NITs (National Institutes of Technology) and about 25 IIITs (Indian Institutes of Information Technology). There are 67 agricultural universities in India.