Health and Diseases Online Test 10th Science Lesson 21 Questions in English

Health and Diseases Online Test 10th Science Lesson 21 Questions in English

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Question 1
Which refers to cruel, violent, harmful or injurious treatment of another human being?
A
Abuse
B
Caution
C
Psychedelic
D
All the above
Question 1 Explanation: 
Abuse refers to cruel, violent, harmful or injurious treatment of another human being. It includes physical, emotional or psychological, verbal, child and sexual abuses. Abuse can occur within the family and with people who are not associated with the family. These days the use of drugs, alcohol and tobacco has been increasing especially among teenagers and adolescents for adventure, excitement, curiosity and experimentation.
Question 2
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. Abuses occur in a variety of forms and are deeply rooted in cultural, social and economic practices. Solving this global problem however requires a much better understanding of its occurrence, causes and consequences with context to sexual and childhood abuse, this is followed by substance abuse.
  2. Smoking cigarettes, alcohol addiction, use of drugs, eating high fat and cholesterol rich diets, excessive intake of junk foods, reduced physical activity are some of the risk factors for illness and early death.
  3. The role of behaviour in health has been receiving less attention in countries around the world. The health habits of the individuals and their behaviour influence the development of chronic and fatal diseases such as diabetes, obesity, heart disease, cancer and AIDS. These conditions cannot be reduced by changing lifestyles to promote wellness.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 2 Explanation: 
The role of behaviour in health has been receiving increased attention in countries around the world. The health habits of the individuals and their behaviour influence the development of chronic and fatal diseases such as diabetes, obesity, heart disease, cancer and AIDS. These conditions can be substantially reduced by adopting lifestyles that promote wellness and protect their health by taking nutritious diet, regular exercise and by avoiding drugs, alcohol and smoking.
Question 3
Which among the following ministry championed the introduction of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012?
A
The ministry of minority affairs
B
The ministry of civil aviation
C
The ministry of women and child development
D
The ministry of home affairs
Question 3 Explanation: 
The Ministry of Women and Child Development championed the introduction of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. People who traffic children for sexual purposes are also punishable under the provisions relating to the Act.
Question 4
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. Child abuse constitutes all forms of physical or emotional ill treatment, sexual abuse, exploitation resulting in child’s ill health, survival and development. Physical abuse of a child is defined as those acts that cause physical harm such as threatening, beating, kicking and hitting the child.
  2. Sexual harassment is a form of power and dominance of one person over another, which can result in harmful consequence to the victim. It refers to inappropriate or forced sexual contact. Adolescent girls and women encounter sexual harassment in different forms.
  3. Sexual abuse is more common at work places. Verbal remarks, comments, gestures and looks are the most common forms of abuse. This results in psychological distress, physical illness and eating disorders in the affected individuals
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 5
When National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up?
A
2006
B
2007
C
2009
D
2010
Question 5 Explanation: 
The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) was set up in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. This act emphasizes the principle of universality and inviolability of child rights and recognizes the tone of urgency in all the child related policies of the country.
Question 6
Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding measures adopted for monitoring and assessment of abused child who have undergone signs and symptoms of distress
A
Child Helpline: The Child Helpline provides a social worker who can assist the child by providing food, shelter and protection
B
Counselling the child: Psychologists and social workers should provide guidance, counselling and continuous support to a victimized child.
C
Family isolation: The victimized child should be isolated by the family members. They should be provided with proper care and attention to overcome their sufferings.
D
Medical care: A child victim of sexual offences should receive medical care and treatment from health care professionals to overcome mental stress and depression.
Question 6 Explanation: 
Family support: The victimized child should be supported by the family members. They should be provided with proper care and attention to overcome their sufferings.
Question 7
Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding measures adopted for monitoring and assessment of abused child who have undergone signs and symptoms of distress
A
Legal Counsel: The family or the guardian of the child victim shall be entitled to free assistance of a legal counsel for such offence.
B
Rehabilitation: Enrolling in schools and resuming their education is an important step towards rehabilitation of the child. It is essential that the child’s life is gradually returned to normal after the incidence of abuse.
C
Community based efforts: Conducting awareness campaign on child abuse and its prevention.
D
Protection of all children of all age group up to 16 years of age is of equal importance. Policies define priority actions for the most vulnerable children.
Question 7 Explanation: 
Protection of all children of all age group up to 18 years of age is of equal importance. Policies define priority actions for the most vulnerable children.
Question 8
Which among the following statement is correct regarding Instructions to be given by parents and teachers to the child for Prevention of child sexual abuse?
A
Do not talk to any suspected person or strangers and to maintain a distance and not to be alone with unknown person
B
To be careful while travelling alone in public or private transport
C
Not to receive money, toys, gifts or chocolates from known or unknown person to them without the knowledge of their parents
D
All the above
Question 9
The physical and mental dependency on alcohol, smoking and drugs is _____
A
Depression
B
Rehabilitation
C
Addiction
D
All the above
Question 9 Explanation: 
The physical and mental dependency on alcohol, smoking and drugs is called addiction. The addictive potential of these substances pulls an individual into a vicious cycle leading to regular abuse and dependency. This is of serious concern because abuse of tobacco, alcohol or drugs produce many harmful effects in an individual, to the family and even to the society.
Question 10
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. Drugs are normally used for the treatment of disease on advice of a physician and withdrawn after recovery. A person who is habituated to a drug due to its prolonged use is called drug addict. This is called drug addiction or drug abuse.
  2. A drug that modifies the physical, biological, psychological or social behaviour of a person by stimulating, depressing or disturbing the functions of the body and the mind is called compromising drug. These drugs interact with the central nervous system and affect the individual mentally.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 10 Explanation: 
A drug that modifies the physical, biological, psychological or social behaviour of a person by stimulating, depressing or disturbing the functions of the body and the mind is called addictive drug. These drugs interact with the central nervous system and affect the individual physically and mentally.
Question 11
Which drug acts on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception?
A
Rehabilitation drugs
B
Psychotropic drugs
C
Abusive drugs
D
Pointless drug
Question 11 Explanation: 
There are certain drugs called psychotropic drugs which acts on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception. They are referred as mood-altering drugs.
Question 12
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. Persons who consume these drugs become fully dependent on them; they cannot live without drugs. This condition is referred as drug dependence. Psychological dependence is a feel that drugs help them to reduce stress.
  2. Physical and mental dependence on the drug for normal condition of well-being and to maintain physiolonsgical state.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 13
What is the date of International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking?
A
January 26
B
February 26
C
June 26
D
September 26
Question 13 Explanation: 
International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking - June 26.
Question 14
Which among the following statement on adverse effects of drug use among adolescents is incorrect?
A
Drop in academic performance, absence from school or college
B
Deteriorating relationship with family and friends
C
Lack of interest in personal hygiene, isolation, depression, fatigue and aggressive behaviour
D
Increase in food and sleeping habits and decrease in body weight and appetite
Question 14 Explanation: 
Change in food and sleeping habits and fluctuation in body weight and appetite. Always looking out for an easy way to get money for obtaining drugs.
Question 15
Adverse effects of drug use among adolescents does not prone to which among the following infection?
A
AIDS
B
Hepatitis-B
C
Chromhidrosis
D
None of the above
Question 15 Explanation: 
Adverse effects of drug use among adolescents Prone to infections like AIDS and Hepatitis-B.
Question 16
When Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was introduced?
A
1963
B
1975
C
1985
D
1997
Question 16 Explanation: 
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act was introduced in 1985.
Question 17
The first phase of treatment for drug de-addiction is _____
A
Psychotherapy
B
Rehabilitation
C
Detoxication
D
Proliferation
Question 17 Explanation: 
Management of de-addiction is a complicated and difficult task. The path to recovery of drug addicts is long and often slow. The first phase of treatment is detoxification. The drug is stopped gradually and the addict is helped to overcome the withdrawal symptoms. The addict undergoes severe physical and emotional disturbance. This is taken care by specific medication.
Question 18
Which among the following statement regarding De-addiction is correct?
  1. Psychotherapy: Individual counselling is given by psychologists and counsellors not as group counselling. The treatment includes efforts to reduce the addict’s stress, taught traditional ways to solve every day’s problems, adequate diet, rest and relaxation.
  2. Counselling to family members: Social workers counsel family members in order to change the attitude of rejection so that the addict is accepted by the family and the society
  3. Rehabilitation: They are given proper vocational training so that they can lead a healthy life and become useful members of the society.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 18 Explanation: 
Psychotherapy: Individual and group counselling is given by psychologists and counsellors. The treatment includes efforts to reduce the addict’s stress, taught new ways to solve everyday’s problems, adequate diet, rest and relaxation.
Question 19
Which among the following organisation in 1984 suggested the use of the term drug dependence in place of drug addiction or drug abuse?
A
WHO
B
IMF
C
World Bank
D
WTO
Question 19 Explanation: 
World Health Organization (WHO) 1984 suggested the use of the term drug dependence in place of drug addiction or drug abuse.
Question 20
Which among the following is obtained from the plant Nicotiana rustica?
A
Ricin
B
Tobacco
C
Coffee
D
All the above
Question 20 Explanation: 
Tobacco is obtained from the tobacco plant Nicotiana tobaccum and Nicotiana rustica. The dried and cured leaves of its young branches make the commercial tobacco used worldwide. Addiction to tobacco is due to ‘nicotine’ an alkaloid present in it. Nicotine is a stimulant, highly harmful and poisonous substance.
Question 21
When powdered tobacco is taken through nose, it is called _____
A
Smoking
B
Diluting
C
Snuffing
D
All the above
Question 21 Explanation: 
Tobacco is used for smoking, chewing and snuffing. Inhaling tobacco smoke from cigars, cigarettes, bidis, pipes, hukka is called smoking. Tobacco in powder form is chewed with pan. When powdered tobacco is taken through nose, it is called snuffing.
Question 22
Which among the following Smoking Hazards and Effects of Tobacco is incorrect
A
Ergonovine and fermi hydrocarbons present in tobacco smoke is carcinogenic causing lung cancer
B
Causes increased gastric secretion which leads to gastric and duodenal ulcers.
C
Tobacco chewing causes oral cancer (mouth cancer)
D
Increased blood pressure caused by smoking leads to increased risk of heart disease.
Question 22 Explanation: 
Benzopyrene and polycyclic hydrocarbons present in tobacco smoke is carcinogenic causing lung cancer.
Question 23
Which among the following organisation issued a directive under which all cigarette advertisements and packs carry a statutory warning “Smoking is injurious to Health”?
A
WTO
B
United Nations
C
WHO
D
UNESCO
Question 23 Explanation: 
World Health organization (WHO) 1984 suggested the use of the term drug. WHO issued a directive under which all cigarette advertisements and packs carry a statutory warning “Smoking is injurious to Health”.
Question 24
Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Smoking Hazards and Effects of Tobacco
A
Causes inflammation of throat and bronchi leading to conditions like bronchitis and pulmonary tuberculosis
B
Inflammation of lung alveoli, decrease surface area for gas exchange and cause emphysema.
C
Sulphur oxide of tobacco smoke binds to haemoglobin of RBC and decreases its oxygen carrying capacity causing hypoxia in body tissues.
D
None of the above
Question 24 Explanation: 
Carbon monoxide of tobacco smoke binds to haemoglobin of RBC and decreases its oxygen carrying capacity causing hypoxia in body tissues.
Question 25
When Anti-Tobacco Act was passed _____
A
May 1st 2000
B
August 1st 2000
C
May 1st 2004
D
August 1st 2004
Question 25 Explanation: 
Anti-Tobacco Act was passed on May 1st 2004. By 2030 tobacco is expected to be single biggest cause of death worldwide accounting for 10 million deaths per year.
Question 26
Which among the following statement is incorrect
  1. The consumption of alcohol is a social evil practiced by the poorer sections of the society. The dependence of alcohol is called alcoholic and the addict is termed as narcotic. It is called alcohol abuse.
  2. Drinking of alcohol impairs one’s physical, physiological and psychological functions. Prolonged use of alcohol depresses the nervous system, by acting as a sedative and analgesic substance.
 
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 26 Explanation: 
The consumption of alcohol is a social evil practiced by the wealthier and poorer sections of the society. The dependence of alcohol is called alcoholism and the addict is termed as alcoholic. It is called alcohol abuse.
Question 27
Which among the following is correct regarding harmful effect of alcohol?
  1. Nerve cell damage resulting in various mental and physical disturbances. Lack of co-ordination of body organs and Blurred or reduced vision, results in road accidents.
  2. Dilation of blood vessels which may affect functioning of the heart. Liver damage resulting in dilate liver which leads to leukaemia and formation of fibrous tissues.
  3. Body loses its control and consciousness eventually leading to health complications and ultimately to death.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 27 Explanation: 
Dilation of blood vessels which may affect functioning of the heart and Liver damage resulting in fatty liver which leads to cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues.
Question 28
Which among the following statement is correct regarding Rehabilitation Measures for Alcoholics
  1. Education and counselling: Education and proper counselling will help the alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress, to accept failures in their life.
  2. Avoid physical activity: Individuals undergoing rehabilitation should be channelized into healthy mental activities like reading, music, sports not physical activity like sport.
  3. Seeking help from parents and peer groups: When a problematic situation occurs, the affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents and peers. This would help them to share their feeling of anxiety, wrong doing and get rid of the habit.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 28 Explanation: 
Physical activity: Individuals undergoing rehabilitation should be channelized into healthy activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.
Question 29
Alcoholic should seek help from who among the following?
A
Psychologist
B
Psychiatrist
C
Both Psychologist and Psychiatrist
D
Godman
Question 29 Explanation: 
Alcoholics should seek help from psychologists and psychiatrists to get relieved from this condition and to lead a relaxed and peaceful life. Alcohol de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes are helpful to the individual so that they could get rid of the problem completely and can lead a normal and healthy life.
Question 30
Which among the following is not non-communicable disease?
A
Diabetes Mellitus
B
Tuberculosis
C
Obesity
D
Cancer
Question 30 Explanation: 
Diseases are prevalent in our society due to our improper way of living, conditions of stress and strain. These diseases are non-communicable (Diabetes Mellitus, Obesity, Cancer, etc.,) and affect the person who are suffering from particular symptoms. It is an impairment of the body tissue or organ, disturbances in metabolic function which require modification of an individual's normal life.
Question 31
Which is characterised by increased blood glucose level due to insufficient, deficient or failure of insulin secretion?
A
Diabetes Mellitus
B
Tuberculosis
C
Obesity
D
Cancer
Question 31 Explanation: 
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder. In Greek (Diabetes – running through; mellitus- sweet). It is characterised by increased blood glucose level due to insufficient, deficient or failure of insulin secretion.
Question 32
Diabetes Mellitus is common due to which endocrine disorder?
A
Lungs
B
Hypothalamus
C
Thyroid
D
Pancreas
Question 32 Explanation: 
Diabetes Mellitus is the most common pancreatic endocrine disorder.
Question 33
How many types of diabetes mellitus are there?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Six
Question 33 Explanation: 
There are two types of diabetes mellitus. They are Type-1 Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM) and Type-2 Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM).
Question 34
Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Type-1 Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)?
  1. IDDM accounts for 10 to 20% of the known diabetics. The condition also occurs in elders (mostly old age) and young adults, the onset is usually sudden and can be life threatening. This is caused by the destruction of α-cells of the pancreas.
  2. It is characterized by abnormally elevated blood glucose levels (hyperglycemia) resulting from inadequate insulin secretion. Causes: Genetic inheritance and environmental factors (infections due to virus, acute stress) are the cause for this condition.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 34 Explanation: 
IDDM accounts for 10 to 20% of the known diabetics. The condition also occurs in children (juvenile onset diabetes) and young adults, the onset is usually sudden and can be life threatening. This is caused by the destruction of β-cells of the pancreas.
Question 35
The average age for the onset of diabetes is ____
A
30 years
B
35 years
C
40 years
D
70 years
Question 35 Explanation: 
One in every 8 individuals in India is a diabetic. The revised WHO estimates for the year 2025 is 57.2 million diabetics in India. The average age for the onset of diabetes is 40 years, while it is 55 years in other countries. World Health Organization projects that diabetes will be 7th leading cause of death by the year 2030.
Question 36
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM) accounting for 80 to 90% of the diabetic population. It develops slowly, usually milder and more stable. Insulin production by the pancreas is normal but its action is impaired. The target cells do not respond to insulin.
  2. It does not allow the movement of glucose into cells. The causes are multifactorial which include increasing age (affecting middle aged and older people), obesity, sedentary life style, overeating and physically inactive.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 37
Increased blood glucose level is known as _____
A
Polyuria
B
Polyphagia
C
Glycosuria
D
Hyperglycemia
Question 37 Explanation: 
Increased blood glucose level is known as Hyperglycemia.
Question 38
Loss of water leads to thirst is known as _____
A
Polyuria
B
Polyphagia
C
Glycosuria
D
Polydipsia
Question 38 Explanation: 
Loss of water leads to thirst (Polydipsia) resulting in increased fluid intake.
Question 39
Which among the following is not the symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus?
A
Polyuria
B
Polyphagia
C
Glycosuria
D
Anhidrosis
Question 39 Explanation: 
Diabetes mellitus is associated with several metabolic alterations. The most important symptoms are Hyperglycemia, polyuria, polydipsia, glycosuria, polyphagia, Fatigue and loss of weight.
Question 40
Which among the following is wrongly matched?
  1. Polyuria – Increased urine output leading to dehydration
  2. Glycosuria – Excessive glucose excreted in urine
  3. Polyphagia – Excess sweat due to loss of glucose in urine.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Only 3
D
None
Question 40 Explanation: 
Polyphagia – Excess hunger due to loss of glucose in urine.
Question 41
When diagnosis for confirming diabetes is essential, according to WHO, if the fasting blood glucose is greater than what?
A
90 mg/dl
B
100 mg/dl
C
120 mg/dl
D
140 mg/dl
Question 41 Explanation: 
According to WHO recommendation, if the fasting blood glucose is greater than 140 mg/dl or the random blood glucose is greater than 200 mg /dl on more than two occasions, diagnosis for confirming diabetes is essential.
Question 42
Which among the following is not the Millet?
A
Sowar
B
Wheat
C
Bajra
D
Ragi
Question 42 Explanation: 
jowar, bajra, ragi are millets. Wheat is not a millet
Question 43
Which among the following statement is correct regarding Prevention and Control of Diabetes?
  1. Diet, hypoglycemic drugs, insulin injection and exercise are the management options based on the type and severity of the condition. The overall goal of diabetes management is to maintain normal blood glucose level.
  2. Low carbohydrate and fibre rich diets are more appropriate. Carbohydrates should be taken in the form of starch and complex sugars. Refined sugars (sucrose and glucose) should be avoided. Diet comprising whole grains, millets, green leafy vegetables, wheat and unpolished rice should be included in diet regularly.
  3. Carbohydrates is maintained to about 20- 25% of the total calories. High protein content of 30-35% of the total intake is required to supply essential amino acids. Fat content in the diet should be 5-15% of the total calories. Saturated fat intake should be reduced. Poly saturated fatty acid content should be higher.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 43 Explanation: 
Carbohydrates is maintained to about 50- 55% of the total calories. High protein content of 10-15% of the total intake is required to supply essential amino acids. Fat content in the diet should be 15-25% of the total calories. Saturated fat intake should be reduced. Polyunsaturated fatty acid content should be higher.
Question 44
Which is the state in which there is an accumulation of excess body fat with an abnormal increase in body weight?
A
Diabetes
B
Anxiety
C
Obesity
D
All the above
Question 44 Explanation: 
Obesity is the state in which there is an accumulation of excess body fat with an abnormal increase in body weight. Obesity is a complex multifactorial chronic disease developing from influence of social, behavioural, psychological, metabolic and cellular factors.
Question 45
Which among the following statement is correct regarding Prevention and Control of Diabetes?
  1. Management with insulin: Commercially available insulin preparations (short and long acting) are also used to maintain blood glucose levels.
  2. Physical activity: Exercise plays an important role in facilitating a good control of diabetes, in addition to strengthening and toning up the muscles.
  3. Education and Awareness: People with diabetics should be educated on the nature of disease they have and the possibility of complications of the disease, if blood sugar is not kept under control. Instructions regarding diet, exercise and drugs should be explained.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 46
Which among the following is the formula for Body mass index (BMI)?
A
BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (m)2
B
BMI = Height (m)2 / Weight (kg)
C
BMI = Weight (kg) + Height (m)2
D
BMI = Height (m)2 × Weight (kg)
Question 46 Explanation: 
Obesity occurs if intake of calories is more than the expenditure of energy. Over weight and obesity are conditions where the body weight is greater than the mean standard weight for age and height of an individual. Body mass index (BMI) is an estimate of body fat and health risk. BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (m)2.
Question 47
Every how many calories of excess consumption leads to 1 gm fat deposit and increase in body weight?
A
4 Calories
B
7 calories
C
9 Calories
D
12 Calories
Question 47 Explanation: 
Every 7 calories of excess consumption lead to 1 gm fat deposit and increase in body weight. Weight due to fat in adipose tissue exceeds more than 20% to 25 % of body weight. An adult weighing 10% more than the standard weight is OVERWEIGHT and 20% more is OBESE.
Question 48
Which among the following is the not risk factors of Obesity?
A
Diabetes
B
Gall bladder disease
C
Arthritis
D
None of the above
Question 48 Explanation: 
Obesity is due to genetic factors, physical inactivity, eating habits (overeating) and endocrine factors. Obesity is a positive risk factor in development of hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, coronary heart disease and arthritis.
Question 49
Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Prevention and Control of Obesity?
  1. Diet Management: Low calorie, normal protein, vitamins and mineral, restricted carbohydrate and fat, high fibre diet can prevent overweight. Calorie restriction for weight reduction is safe and most effective.
  2. Physical exercise: A low calorie diet accompanied by moderate exercise will be effective in causing weight loss. Meditation, yoga and physical activity can also reduce stress related to overeating.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 50
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is associated with diseases of the ____
A
Kidney
B
Heart
C
Lungs
D
Neurons
Question 50 Explanation: 
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) is associated with diseases of the heart and blood vessels.
Question 51
Desirable level for blood cholesterol should be less than what for Indians?
A
200 mg/dl
B
300 mg/dl
C
400 mg/dl
D
500 mg/dl
Question 51 Explanation: 
Desirable level for blood cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dl for Indians. The risk of coronary heart disease increases slowly as blood cholesterol levels increases from 200 to 300 mg/dl.
Question 52
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. Coronary heart disease (CHD) is the most common form and is caused by deposition of cholesterol in the blood vessels. It usually develops slowly over many years beginning from childhood, they may form a fatty streak to a fibrous complicated plaque.
  2. It leads to the narrowing of blood vessels leading to Lipoprotein in the large and medium sized arteries that supply the heart muscle with RBC. It leads to sudden ischemia (High blood supply to heart muscle) and myocardial infarction (death of the heart muscle tissue).
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 52 Explanation: 
It leads to the narrowing of blood vessels leading to atherosclerosis in the large and medium sized arteries that supply the heart muscle with oxygen. It leads to sudden ischemia (deficient blood supply to heart muscle) and myocardial infarction (death of the heart muscle tissue).
Question 53
Which among the following is not the major causes and contributing factors for heart disease?
A
Hypercholesterolemia
B
Hypertension
C
Hyperglycemia
D
None of the above
Question 53 Explanation: 
Hypercholesterolemia (High blood cholesterol) and high blood pressure (Hypertension) are the major causes and contributing factors for heart disease and if untreated may cause severe damage to brain, kidney and eventually lead to stroke.
Question 54
Which among the following is the causes of Heart disease?
A
Heredity
B
Cigarette smoking
C
Excessive alcohol consumption
D
All the above
Question 54 Explanation: 
Heredity (family history), diet rich in saturated fat and cholesterol, obesity, increasing age, cigarette smoking, emotional stress, sedentary lifestyle, excessive alcohol consumption and physical inactivity are some of the causes.
Question 55
Which among the following is not the symptoms of heart disease?
A
Headache
B
Hair loss
C
Swelling of leg
D
Tiredness
Question 55 Explanation: 
Shortness of breath, headache, tiredness, dizziness, chest pain, swelling of leg, and gastrointestinal disturbances are symptoms of heart disease.
Question 56
Which among the following has the lowers risk of heart disease?
A
Low Density Lipoprotein
B
Bad cholesterol
C
High Density Lipoprotein
D
None of the above
Question 56 Explanation: 
HDL (High Density Lipoprotein) or "good" cholesterol lowers risk of heart disease while LDL (Low Density Lipoprotein) or "bad" cholesterol increases risk of heart disease.
Question 57
Which among the following statement is correct regarding Prevention and Control of Heart Disease?
  1. Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol rich food, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential. Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamin are required.
  2. Physical activity: Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for body weight maintenance. Addictive substance avoidance: Alcohol consumption and smoking are to be avoided.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 58
The study of cancer is called _____
A
Oncology
B
Pulmonology
C
Nephrology
D
Angiology
Question 58 Explanation: 
Cancer causes about 4 million deaths annually throughout the world. In India more than one million people suffer from cancer. Cancer is derived from Latin word meaning crab. The study of cancer is called Oncology (Oncos- Tumor).
Question 59
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissue forming _____
A
Piroplasm
B
Alloplasm
C
Bioplasm
D
Neoplasm
Question 59 Explanation: 
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissue forming a tumor or neoplasm (new growth). It is a heterogenous group of cells that do not respond to the normal cell division.
Question 60
The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues. This process is called _____
A
Scoliosis
B
Halitosis
C
Metastasis
D
Katharsis
Question 60 Explanation: 
The cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues. This process is called metastasis. The frequent sites of metastasis are lungs, bones, liver, skin and brain.
Question 61
Which type of cancer arise from epithelial and glandular tissues?
A
Carcinomas
B
Sarcomas
C
Candylomas
D
Sterigma
Question 61 Explanation: 
Carcinomas arise from epithelial and glandular tissues. They include cancers of skin, lung, stomach and brain. About 85% of the tumours are carcinomas.
Question 62
Which type of cancer occur in the connective and muscular tissue?
A
Carcinomas
B
Sarcomas
C
Candylomas
D
Sterigma
Question 62 Explanation: 
Sarcomas occur in the connective and muscular tissue. They include the cancer of bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose tissue and muscles. These form 1% of all tumours.
Question 63
Which among the following are called blood cancers?
A
Polycythemia
B
Thalassaemia
C
Tularemia
D
Leukaemia
Question 63 Explanation: 
Leukaemia is characterized by an increase in the formation of white blood cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes. Leukaemia is called blood cancers. Most common type of cancer which also affect children below 15 years of age.
Question 64
Which among the following statement is incorrect
  1. Benign tumours or Non-malignant tumours: Mass of proliferating cells which grow very rapidly invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues.
  2. Malignant tumours: Remain confined in the organ affected and do not spread to other parts of the body.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 64 Explanation: 
Benign tumours or Non-malignant tumours: Remain confined in the organ affected and do not spread to other parts of the body. Malignant tumours: Mass of proliferating cells which grow very rapidly invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues.
Question 65
Cancer causing agents are called ____
A
Antigen
B
Kerogen
C
Carcinogen
D
Pyrogen
Question 65 Explanation: 
Cancer causing agents are called carcinogens. They are physical, chemical agents, ionizing radiations and biological agents.
Question 66
Which among the following is not the chemical carcinogenic agent?
A
Nicotine
B
Pesticide
C
Asbestos
D
UV rays
Question 66 Explanation: 
Chemical agents: Nicotine, caffeine, products of combustion of coal and oil, pesticides, asbestos, nickel, certain dyes and artificial sweeteners induce cancer. Radiations: Ionizing radiations like X-rays, gamma- rays, radioactive substances and non-ionising radiations like UV rays cause DNA damage leading to cancer.
Question 67
Cancer causing viruses are called _____
A
Transgenic virus
B
Oncogenic virus
C
Intragenic virus
D
Autogenic virus
Question 67 Explanation: 
Biological agents: Cancer causing viruses are called oncogenic viruses.Cancer control programmes should focus on primary prevention and early detection. To prevent lung cancer tobacco smoking is to be avoided and protective measures to be taken against exposure to toxic pollutants of industries. Excessive exposure to radiation is to be avoided to prevent skin cancer.
Question 68
Heavy smoking causes cancer of ____
A
Oral cavity
B
Pharynx
C
Larynx
D
All the above
Question 68 Explanation: 
Physical Irritant: Heavy smoking causes lung cancer and cancers of oral cavity, pharynx (throat) and larynx. Betel and tobacco chewing causes oral cancer. Excessive exposure to sunlight may cause skin cancer.
Question 69
Which among the following is incorrect regarding Treatment of Cancer?
A
Radiation therapy: Tumour cells are irradiated by lethal doses of radiation while protecting the surrounding normal cells.
B
Chemotherapy: Tumours are removed by surgery to prevent further spread of cancer cells.
C
Immunotherapy: Biological response modifiers like interferons are used to activate the immune system and help in destroying the tumours.
D
None of the above
Question 69 Explanation: 
Chemotherapy: It involves administration of anti-cancerous drugs which prevent cell division and are used to kill cancer cells. Surgery: Tumours are removed by surgery to prevent further spread of cancer cells.
Question 70
AIDS is a severe viral disease and caused by _____
A
ADS
B
HIV
C
Corona
D
Rabies
Question 70 Explanation: 
AIDS is a severe viral disease and caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). It is a condition in which immune system fails and suppress the body’s disease fighting mechanism. They attack the lymphocytes and the affected individual is prone to infectious diseases.
Question 71
Who among the following set up the first voluntary testing and counselling centre and an AIDS Research group in Chennai during 80's?
A
Deepa Malik
B
Basanti Bisht
C
Suniti Solomon
D
Anuradha Koirala
Question 71 Explanation: 
Dr. Suniti Solomon, pioneered HIV research and treatment in India. She set up the first voluntary testing and counselling centre and an AIDS Research group in Chennai during 80's. Her team was the first to document evidence of HIV infection in India in 1985 (First Indian AIDS patient in Chennai).
Question 72
AIDS virus has been found in which among the following?
A
Tears
B
Saliva
C
Urine
D
All the above
Question 72 Explanation: 
AIDS virus has been found in urine, tears, saliva, breast milk and vaginal secretions. The virus is transmitted by an infected patient who comes in contact with blood of a healthy person. HIV/AIDS is not transmitted by touch or any physical contact.
Question 73
Which among the following is incorrect regarding transmission of HIV?
A
Sexual contact with infected person
B
Use of contaminated needles or syringes especially in case of intravenous drug abusers
C
By transfusion of contaminated / infected blood or blood products
D
It does not transfer from infected mother to her child through placenta.
Question 73 Explanation: 
From infected mother to her child through placenta.
Question 74
What is the date of world cancer day?
A
4th January
B
4th February
C
4th May
D
4th June
Question 74 Explanation: 
4th February is world cancer day.
Question 75
Which among the following is not the symptom of AIDS?
A
Swelling of lymph nodes
B
Loss of memory
C
Shedding of nail
D
Weight loss
Question 75 Explanation: 
Infected individuals become immunodeficient. The person becomes more susceptible to viral, bacterial, protozoan and fungal infections. Swelling of lymph nodes, damage to brain, loss of memory, lack of appetite and weight loss, fever, chronic diarrhoea, cough, lethargy, pharyngitis, nausea and headache.
Question 76
Which among the following is not the diagnosis of AIDS?
A
DEXA
B
Western Blot
C
ELISA
D
None of the above
Question 76 Explanation: 
The presence of HIV virus can be confirmed by Western Blot analysis or Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA).
Question 77
Which among the following is not the treatment for AIDS?
A
Immune stimulative therapy
B
Chemotherapy
C
Anti-retroviral drugs
D
None of the above
Question 77 Explanation: 
Anti-retroviral drugs and immune stimulative therapy can prolong the life of the infected person.
Question 78
When was National Cancer Awareness Day?
A
21st February
B
5th May
C
7th November
D
1st August
Question 78 Explanation: 
National Cancer Awareness Day -7th November.
Question 79
Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Prevention and Control of AIDS?
A
Screening of blood from blood banks for HIV before transfusion.
B
Ensuring the use of disposable needles and syringes in hospitals and clinics.
C
Advocating safe sex and advantages of using condoms.
D
Persons with HIV/AIDS should be isolated from the family and society
Question 79 Explanation: 
Persons with HIV/AIDS should not be isolated from the family and society. Creating awareness campaign and educating people on the consequences of AIDS.
Question 80
When “World AIDS Day” is observed every year?
A
December 1st
B
November 1st
C
December 1st
D
August 1st
Question 80 Explanation: 
Every year December 1st is observed as the “World AIDS Day”.
Question 81
Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM) is also called as _____
A
Young onset diabetes
B
Adult-onset diabetes
C
Child onset diabetes
D
All the above
Question 81 Explanation: 
Non-Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM) is also called as Adult-onset diabetes.
Question 82
In our country which among the following organisation are educating people about AIDS?
A
NACO
B
MICO
C
SIIO
D
TAO
Question 82 Explanation: 
Many people are ignorant about AIDS and it has been said that – “don’t” die of ignorance”. In our country NACO (National AIDS Control Organization) and other NGO’S (Non- Governmental Organizations) are educating people about AIDS.
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