Indian Constitution 10th Social Science Lesson 7 Questions in English

10th Social Science Lesson 7 Questions in English

7] Indian Constitution

1. The Constitution of a country

i) It is the fundamental law of the country.

ii) It reflects the fundamental principles which are the base of the government.

iii) It gives the framework of distribution of powers between the various organs of the government.

a) i only c) iii only

b) ii only d) All the above

Explanation

The Constitution of a country is the fundamental law which reflects the fundamental principles on which the government of that country is based. It is concerned with institutional fabric and the framework of distribution of powers between the various organs of the government and also between union and state.

2. Who is referred as the Father of the constitution?

a) B.R.Ambedkar c) James Madison

b) James Monroe d) Thomas Jefferson

Explanation

The concept of constitution was first originated in USA. James Madison.Jr was an American Statesman, served as the fourth president of the United States of America from 1809 to 1817. He is the drafter of the constitution, recorder of the constitutional convention. James madison is known as the father of constitution.

3. Assertion (A): A Constitution fulfils the beliefs of different segments of people.

Reasoning (R): A country is usually made up of different communities of people who have different Beliefs

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

A country is usually made up of different communities of people who have different beliefs; it will be helpful in fulfilling the beliefs of different segments of people.

4. Under which Act the constitution of India was formed?

a) Cabinet Mission plan, 1946 c) Cripps Mission, 1942

b) August Offer, 1940 d) Independence Act, 1947

Explanation

The constitution of India was framed by a constituent assembly setup under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.

5. The Members of Constituent Assembly Includes

a) Provinces (290), States (90), Chief Commissioner Provinces (4)

b) Provinces (293), States (50), Chief Commissioner Provinces (5), Baluchistan (1)

c) Provinces (292), States (92), Chief Commissioner Provinces (3)

d) Provinces (292), States (93), Chief Commissioner Provinces (3), Baluchistan (1)

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly consisted of 389 members representing 292 Provinces, 93 States, 3 Chief Commissioner Provinces and Baluchistan.

6. Assertion (A): Dr. Sachichi dananda Sinha was the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.

Reasoning(R): Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first elected President of the Constituent Assembly.

Explanation

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first chairman (temporary) of Constituent Assembly. Later Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the president and its vice-president was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, a Christian from Bengal and former vice-chancellor of Calcutta University.

7. The Idea for a Constituent Assembly for India was proposed in ____ by ______.

a) 1930, B.N.Rau c) 1932, Motilal Nehru

b) 1935, C.Rajagopalachari d) 1934, M.N.Roy

Explanation

An idea for a Constituent Assembly was proposed in 1934 by M.N.Roy, a pioneer of the Communist movement in India.

8. Which Governor General proposed the August Offer in 1940?

a) Lord Mountbatten c) Lord Linlithgow

b) Lord Willington d) Lord Wavell

Explanation

The August Offer was a proposal made by Viceroy Linlithgow in the year 1940 promising the expansion of the Executive Council of the Viceroy of India.

9. Where was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held?

a) New Delhi c) Mumbai

b) Madras Presidency d) Calcutta

Explanation

The First meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India took place in Constitutional Hall, New Delhi on 9th December 1946.

10. How many sessions did the Constituent Assembly hold to discuss the Concepts of the Constitution?

a) 13 c) 11

b) 10 d) 9

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly met for 11 sessions along with 166 days of meetings.

11. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

a) Dr.Rajendra Prasad c) Acharya Kripalini

b) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

The Indian Constitution was prepared by the Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr.B.R.Ambedkar. He is recognised as the “Father of the Constitution of India”.

12. Who was the Vice President of the Constituent Assembly of India?

a) Harendra Coomar Mookerjee c) Asaf Ali

b) N.Gopalaswami Ayyangar d) Sheikh Abdullah

Explanation

Dr.Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President and its Vice-president was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee who was the former vice-chancellor of Calcutta University.

13. How many female members were included in the Constituent Assembly?

a) 13 c) 15

b) 10 d) 11

Explanation

The Indian Constituent Assembly had 299 representatives after the separation of Pakistan. There were 15 female members in the assembly and all of them had been Freedom fighters.

14. When was the last session of the constituent assembly held?

a) 24 Jan 1949 c) 24 Jan 1950

b) 26 Nov 1950 d) 9 Dec 1950

Explanation

The last meeting of the Indian Constituent Assembly was held on 24th January 1950.

15. How many days did it take to complete the Indian Constitution?

a) 2 years 11 months 18 days c) 2 years 11 months 22 days

b) 2 years 10 months 12 days d) 2 years 07 months 18 days

Explanation

The 389 Representatives of the Constituent assembly took almost three years that is 2 years 11 months and 18 days precisely to complete the drafting of the constitution of India.

16. Who was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

a) Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer c) N.Gopalaswami

b) K.M.Munshi d) G.V.Mavlankar

Explanation

The Drafting Committee had seven members: Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, N.Gopalaswami, B.R.Ambedkar, K.M.Munshi, Mohammad Saadulla, B.L.Mitter and D.P.Khaitan.

17. Match the dates with the process of the Indian Constitution

A. Father of Indian Constitution i) Jan 24, 1950

B. Adoption day ii) B.R. Ambedkar

C. Last session iii) Prem Behari Narain

D. Calligrapher iv) Nov 26, 1949

a) ii, iv, i, iii c) ii, iv, iii, i

b) i, iii, iv, ii d) iii, iv, i, ii

Explanation

B.R. Ambedkar is recognised as the ‘Father of the Constitution of India’. The last meeting of the Indian Constituent Assembly was held on 24th January 1950. The Constitution was finally adopted on November 26, 1949. The Last session of the Constituent Assembly was held on January 24, 1950.

18. The Salient features of Indian Constitution includes

i) Lengthiest constitution in the world.

ii) It is a flexible constitution.

iii) It is a borrowed constitution.

iv) It establishes the parliamentary systems only at the Centre.

a) i, ii only c) iii only

b) ii, iv only d) i, iii only

Explanation

Salient features of Indian Constitution

• It is the lengthiest of all the written constitutions of the world.
• It has borrowed most of its provisions from the constitutions of various countries.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of government.
• It establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It provides an independent judiciary.

19. The Preamble reflects the ________ of the Indian Constitution.

a) Ideals c) Objectives

b) Basic Principles d) All the above

Explanation

The Preamble refers to the Introduction or preface to the constitution. It consists of the ideals, Objectives and basic principles of the Indian constitution.

20. When was the objective resolution was adopted by the constituent assembly?

a) January 22, 1947 c) December 22, 1945

b) November 26, 1949 d) January 26, 1948

Explanation

The Objective Resolution was drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru, which was adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22, 1947.

21. How many times the Preamble was amended?

a) Twice c) only once

b) Thrice d) Never amended

Explanation

The Preamble of the Indian constitution was amended only once on 18th December 1976 through the 22nd Amendment of the Constitution.

22. Which Article gives the provision to amend the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 368 c) Article 356

b) Article 370 d) Article 343

Explanation

The Article 368 of the Indian constitution grants the constituent power to make formal amendments and empowers parliament to amend the constitution.

23. Choose the Correct sentences

i) The Preamble contains the summary or essence of the Indian constitution.

ii) Two new words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act.

iii) The Preamble gives importance to the Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

a) i only c) ii and iii only

b) i and iii only d) iii only

Explanation

Preamble of the Indian Constitution contains the summary and essence of the Constitution. It has been amended only once by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 which added three new words to the Preamble. Liberty, Equality ad Fraternity were the important slogans of the 1789 French Revolution. These are given importance in the Preamble of the Constitution.

24. What is the real source of the Indian Constitution as per the Preamble?

a) The People c) The Union Government

b) The Parliament d) The Judiciary

Explanation

The Preamble begins with the phrase “We the People of India”, which clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the People of India. Thus, we can say that the people of India are the source of the Indian Constitution.

25. State the correct order of the Preamble

a) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

b) Sovereign Secular Socialist Republic Democratic

c) Socialist Sovereign Secular Republic Democratic

d) Secular Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic

Explanation

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution states that India is a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.

26. From which language the word ‘Citizen’ was derived?

a) French c) Latin

b) Greek d) Persian

Explanation

The word “Citizen” is derived from the Latin term “Civis”. It means the resident of the city.

27. Choose the correct sentences

i) The Indian Constitution provides Dual Citizenship for the citizens.

ii) Articles 5 to 13 of the Constitution deals with the Citizenship.

a) i only c) Both i and ii

b) ii only d) None of the above

Explanation

The Constitution of India provides for a Single and uniform citizenship for the whole of Indian Citizens. The Articles 5 to 11 under Part II of the Indian Constitution deals with the citizenship.

28. What are the methods for obtaining the citizenship in India?

a) Descent c) Registration

b) Naturalisation d) All the above

Explanation

The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of Acquiring citizenship by birth, descent, registration, Naturalisation and incorporation of territory.

29. According to the Article 5 of the Indian Constitution the Citizen of India

i) Should be born in the territory of India

ii) Either of parents was born in the territory of India

iii) Ordinarily resident of India for not less than three years.

a) Either i or ii c) Only i and iii

b) Neither i and iii d) All the above

Explanation

Article 5 of the Indian Constitution discusses the facts of citizenship at the commencement of the constitution every person who has domicile in the India and Born in the territory of India or either of whose parents was born in the territory of India or who has been ordinarily resident in India for not less than 5 years immediately preceding such commencement shall be a citizen of India.

30. How many times the Citizenship Act, 1955 has been amended so far?

a) 4 c) 7

b) 8 d) 9

Explanation

The Citizenship Act, 1955 has been amended eight times.

31. Identify the Incorrect statements below

i) All persons born in India on January 26, 1950 are treated as citizens of India.

ii) Person born outside of India shall be a citizen of India if his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.

iii) A person can acquire citizenship of India by registration with authority.

a) i only c) iii only

b) ii only d) None of the above

Explanation

The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalisation and incorporation of territory:

According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, the citizenship could be acquired through any of the following methods.

• By Birth: All persons born in India on or after January 26, 1950 are treated as citizens by birth.
• By Descent: A person born outside India on or after January 26, 1950 shall be a citizen of India by descent, if his father is a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
• By Registration: A person can acquire citizenship of India by registration with appropriate authority.
• By Naturalisation: A foreigners can acquire Indian citizenship, on application for naturalization to the Government of India.
• By Incorporation of Territory: In the event of a certain territory being added to the territory of India, the Government of India shall specify the persons of that territory who shall be citizen of India.

32. In how many possible ways a person can lose his citizenship in India?

a) 2 c) 5

b) 3 d) 4

Explanation

The Citizenship Act 1955 prescribes three ways of losing citizenship under constitution which are Renunciation, Termination and Deprivation.

33. The Idea of Fundamental Rights has been borrowed from which of this Constitution?

a) USA c) Germany

b) USSR d) South Africa

Explanation

The framers of the Indian Constitution derived inspiration from the constitution of USA for the Fundamental Rights.

34. Which Articles of Indian Constitution provides the Right to freedom of Religion for Indian Citizens?

a) Articles 20-23 c) Articles 12-35

b) Articles 25-28 d) Articles 11-15

Explanation

The Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35. In this the articles 25 to 28 provides the basic rights to the freedom of Religion.

35. Who is the responsible for the justice in case of violation of Fundamental Rights of a Citizen?

a) The Lok Sabha c) The President

b) The Governor d) The Supreme Court

Explanation

The Fundamental Rights are conferred by the constitution but in case of any violations in these rights for any citizen, the Supreme Court of India can be approached directly for the ultimate justice as per Article 32.

36. How many types of Fundamental Rights are provided by the Constitution of India?

a) 7 c) 6

b) 8 d) 5

Explanation

Originally, the Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights but at present, there are only six Fundamental Rights is provided to the citizens of India.

37. Which of these Fundamental Rights are available only to Indian citizens?

a) Protection Of language c) Equality before law

b) Right of minorities d) both a and b

Explanation

Fundamental Rights Available Only to Citizens of India

Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

Article 19 – Protection of six rights related to freedom – (a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and (f) to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Article 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.

Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

38. Which Part of Indian Constitution is known as the Magna Carta of India?

a) Part III c) Part IV

b) Part IV A d) Part V

Explanation

Part III of the Constitution is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India.

39. Which is the first written document of Fundamental Rights to Citizens?

a) Charter of Rights, 1215 c) The petition of England, 1628

b) The English bill of Rights, 1689 d) the French Declaration, 1789.

Explanation

Magna Carta is the Charter of Rights issued by King John of England in 1215 under pressure from the Barons. This is the first written document relating to the Fundamental Rights of Citizens.

40. Which of these Articles were modified by the 86th Amendment Act?

a) Article 49 and Article 20 c) Article 21 A and Article 45

b) Article 45 only d) Article 17

Explanation

The 86th amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A.

41. Which of this amendment abolished the Right to Property from the basic Fundamental Rights?

a) 40th Amendment, 1965 c) 44th Amendment, 1978

b) 42nd Amendment, d) 50th Amendment,

Explanation

The Right to property was initially present in Indian Constitution as a Fundamental Right in Article 31. It was abolished by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.It was abolished to bring land reforms and encourage social justice among the people.

42. The Article 18 of the Indian Constitution abolishes

i) No titles except military and Academic distinction shall be conferred by the State.

ii) Prohibits discrimination.

iii) Titles from any foreign State.

iv) No person shall accept any present emolument of any foreign state without the consent of the President.

a) i, ii ,iv only c) ii, iii only

b) i, iii, iv only d) i, iii, iv only

Explanation

The Article 18 of Indian Constitution abolishes the titles conferred by any state or any Foreign State not being a Military or Academic Distinctions. No person who holds any office of profit under the state accepts any title or gifts from any foreign state without the consent of the President.

43. Identify the Incorrect Match

A. Right against Exploitation i) Article 23 to 24

B. Right to Freedom of Religion ii) Article 21 to 32

C. Right to Equality iii) Article 14 to 18

D. Right to Freedom iv) Article 19 to 22

a) i and ii only c) ii, iv only

b) ii only d) iii, iv only

Explanation

44. Right to property is a ______ Right in Part ____ of the Indian Constitution.

a) Fundamental, X c) Legal, XII

b) Birth, XI d) Constitutional, XI

Explanation

Right to property was deleted from the Fundamental Right by the 44th Amendment Act and it was made as a Legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Indian Constitution.

45. Under which Articles were referred by the Indian Constitution for the issue of Jallikattu?

a) Article 29 c) Article 23

b) Article 26 d) Article 28

Explanation

The Jallikattu Issue in Tamil Nadu was heard in the Supreme Court and it was referred with the Article 29(1) as it was indicated does not necessarily confine itself as the cultural rights of minorities and may include the majority people too.

46. Which of these is referred as the Soul of the Constitution?

a) Article 32 c) 44th Amendment

b) Article 44 d) 42nd Amendment

Explanation

According to Dr.B.R.Ambedkar the Article 32, the Right to Constitutional Remedies as the Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution.

47. Choose the correct statements regarding the Right to Constitutional Remedies.

i) A writ is a request issued by a Court in writing under its seal.

ii) Writ is in the nature of a command or prohibition from performing certain acts specified in the orders of the court.

iii) Only the Supreme Court is empowered to issue Writs.

iv) The writs are called as the “Guardians of the Constitution”.

a) i, iii, iv only c) ii, iv only

b) ii only d) i, ii only

Explanation

A writ is an order or command issued by a court. It is a nature of command or prohibition from performing certain acts specified in order of the courts. Both the Supreme Court and High Court can issue five types of writs. The Supreme Court is called as the “Guardian of the Constitution”.

48. Match

Writs Purpose

A. Prohibition i) illegal arrest

B. Mandamus ii) Beyond Jurisdiction

C. Certiorari iii) Usurpation of public office

D. Quo warranto iv) Public authorities

E. Habeas Corpus v) Quashes order of Subordinate Court

a) ii, iii, v, i, iv c) ii, iv, v, iii, i

b) iv, ii, iii, i, v d) i, iv, v, iii, ii

Explanation

49. Which of these Articles cannot be suspended during Emergency Proclamation?

a) Article 15-18 c) Articles 20-21

b) Articles 15-32 d) Articles 23-29

Explanation

The President can suspend Fundamental Rights through specific orders which must be approved by the Parliament. But he cannot suspend the freedom given under Article 20 and 21 in any Circumstances.

50. Which of the Fundamental Rights are immediately suspended by the Article 352 in India?

i) Freedom of speech

ii) Freedom of personal liberty

iii) Freedom of Association

iv) Freedom of Religion

a) i and ii c) ii and iv

b) ii d) i and iii

Explanation

When the President makes a Proclamation of emergency under Article 352, the freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended. This Includes Freedom of Speech and expression, assembly, association, Movement, residence and profession.

51. State the classifications of the Directive principles of State Policy?

a) Socialistic c) Gandhian

b) Liberal-Intellectual d) All the above

Explanation

The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive principles. Based on their content and directions they can be classified into three broad categories, Socialistic, Gandhian and liberal-Intellectual.

52. Which Part of the Indian Constitution describes the Directive Principles of State Policy?

a) Part III c) Part IV

b) Part V d) Part II

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Indian Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.

53. Match

A. Heart of Constitution i) Fundamental Rights

B. Novel Feature ii) State Emergency

C. Magna Carta iii) Directive Principles

D. Dead Letter iv) Article 32

a) iv, iii, i, ii c) ii, iv, i, iii

b) i, iv, ii, iii d) iii, i, iv, i

Explanation

According to Dr. Ambedkar, Article 32 is “the heart and soul of the whole Constitution. Part III of the Constitution is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described these principles as ‘novel features’ of the Indian Constitution. Dr.B.R.Ambedkar said that State Emergency is as a Dead Letter of the constitution which needs to be used sparingly.

54. The Idea of Directive policy was borrowed from which of these countries?

a) USA c) Germany

b) Ireland d) USSR

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy aims at promoting the Social Welfare of the people. It was drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland.

55. Which age group of children are provided with free and compulsory education by the Article 21(A)?

a) 6-12 c) 6-14

b) 5-10 d) 5-16

Explanation

Article 21(A) of the Indian Constitution provides with free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.

56. The Directive Principles of State policy

i) Have Moral and political sanctions.

ii) Protects Human Rights.

iii) Enforceable by a court of law.

iv) Government cannot take away these rights.

a) i and ii only c) iii and iv only

b) iii only d) ii and iv only

57. Identify the Incorrect Statements

i) Fundamental Rights have legal sanctions.

ii) Directive Principles are natural rights.

iii) Fundamental Rights strengthen political democracy in the country.

iv) Directive Principles are mere instructions to the Government.

a) i and iii only c) ii only

b) iii only d) ii, iv only

Explanation

58. Match

A. Fundamental Duties i) Canada

B. Fundamental Rights ii) USSR

C. Directive policy iii) USA

D. Federal iv) Ireland

a) ii, iii, iv, i c) iv, i, iii, i

b) i, iv, ii, iii d) iii, i, ii, iv

Explanation

Indian Constitution has borrowed provisions from the constitutions of various other countries.

Canada -Federation with a strong Centre

Ireland-Directive Principles of State Policy

USA-Fundamental rights

Soviet Union (USSR) -Fundamental duties

59. How many Fundamental Duties were suggested by the Swaran Singh Committee?

a) 10 c) 8

b) 7 d) 5

Explanation

In 1976, Sardar Swaran Singh Committee was set up by the Ruling Congress Party to make recommendations on fundamental duties. This Committee suggested the incorporation of eight Fundamental Duties in the Constitution but the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act included ten Fundamental Duties in 1976.

60. Identify the Incorrect Match

A. Swaran Singh Committee i) 1976

B. P.V.RajaMannar Committee ii) 1971

C. Sarkaria Commission iii) 1980

a) i only c) iii only

b) ii only d) None of the above

Explanation

Swaran Singh Committee suggested the incorporation of 8 Fundamental Duties in the Constitution in the year 1976. The Raja mannar Committee on Centre-State Relations, set up by the Tamil Nadu Government on May 27, 1971 recommended the constitution of a high-power commission to redistribute powers between the Centre and the states. Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government of India. The Sarkaria Commission’s charter was to examine the central-state relationship on various portfolios and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution of India.

61. Choose the Incorrect Statements below

i) The Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution was inspired by the former USSR Constitution.

ii) The 40th Amendment Act of 1976 is related to the Fundamental Duties of Citizens in India.

iii) The Part IV A of Indian Constitution has two Articles.

a) i and iii only c) ii and iii only

b) ii only d) iii only

Explanation

The concept of Fundamental Duties of Indian Constitution was inspired from the former USSR Constitution. Based on the Swaran Singh Committee recommendations 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added Fundamental Duties of the Indian Citizens. This added a new Part IV A to the Constitution which consists of only one article 51 A.

62. What is the eleventh Fundamental Duty according to the 86th Amendment Act of Fundamental Duty?

a) Preserve Natural Environment

b) To safeguard public property

c) Develop scientific temper, Humanism and spirit of inquiry

d) To provide education opportunity to the children of age 6-14 years.

Explanation

The 86th Amendment Act has introduced the 11th Fundamental Act under 51(K) under which all citizens of India or parents shall provide opportunities for education to their children between ages of 6 to 14 years.

63. Which Schedule of the Indian constitution consists the three lists of powers and Functions?

a) Eleventh Schedule c) Seventh Schedule

b) Tenth Schedule d) Sixth Schedule

Explanation

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India defines and specifies the allocation of powers and functions between Union and States.

64. Match the Number of Items with their respective Lists

A. Union List i) 47

B. Concurrent List ii) 61

C. State List iii) 100

a) i, iii, ii c) ii, i, iii

b) iii, i, ii d) ii, iii, i

Explanation

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution embodies three lists namely the Union list of 97 (100) items, State list of 66(61) items and the Concurrent List of 47 items. These define the power and functions of States and Union of the Indian Government.

65. Which Part of the Indian Constitution defines the Federal Structure of the Indian Government?

a) Part XI c) Part X

b) Part XII d) Part IV A

Explanation

The Constitution of India establishes a Federal structure to the Indian Government by declaring it to be Union of States. Part XI of the constitution specifies the distribution of Legislative, Administrative and Executive Powers between the Union and States of India.

66. Assertion (A): The Parliament enjoys the powers to Legislate subjects in the Union Lists.

Reasoning(R): Both the Parliament and State Legislature have power to legislate on State Lists.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The Parliament has the exclusive powers to legislate on subjects in the Union List. The State Legislature has right to legislate on the State list. Both Parliament and State Legislatures have power to legislate on subjects under Concurrent list.

67. In which year the Raja Mannar Committee was formed by the Tamil Nadu Government?

a) 1966 c) 1969

b) 1965 d) 1962

Explanation

A Centre-State Relations inquiry Committee was set up by the Tamil Nadu Government on 2nd September, 1969 under the Chairmanship of Dr.P.V.Rajamannar.

68. Which of these Articles deals with the Administrative relations of Union and State in the Indian Constitution?

a) Articles 256-263 c) Articles 255-260

b) Articles 234-265 d) Articles 245-262

Explanation

Part XI of the Indian Constitution consists of Articles on relations between the Union and States. In this part the Article 256-263 discuss the Administrative relations between the Union and States.

69. Which Organ of the Indian Government recommends the tax division between the State ad Central Governments of India?

a) The Finance Commission c) The Planning Commission

b) The Union Public Service Commission d) The Law Commission

Explanation

The Taxes are collected and imposed by the centre and divided between the Centre and States based on the recommendation of the Finance Commission appointed by the President under the Article 280 of the Constitution.

70. The Inter State Council was established by the recommendations of ______ in the year 1990.

a) Sarkaria Commission c) Raja Mannar Comittee

b) Swaran Singh Committee d) None of the above

Explanation

The Sarkaria Commission was appointed in the year 1983 to make enquiry into the Centre-State relations. The most important establishment of these recommendations is the Inter-State Council in the year 1990.

71. How many Language Divisions are there in the Constitution of India?

a) 3 c) 4

b) 2 d) 5

Explanation

The Part XVII of the Indian Constitution deals with the Official Languages. Its provisions are divides into four heads as Language of the Union, Regional Languages, Language of the Judiciary and texts of Laws and Special Directives.

72. When was the First Language committee was appointed?

a) 1955 c) 1973

b) 1951 d) 1962

Explanation

The First Language committee was appointed in 1955. It submitted its report in 1956.

73. How many regional languages were recognised by the Indian Constitution?

a) 16 c) 14

b) 12 d) 22

Explanation

Initially the Constitution recognised 14 regional languages which were included in the Eighth Schedule. At present 22 languages are recognised.

74. By which Amendment Act Sindhi was added to the official Languages in the Constitution?

a) 20th Amendment Act c) 21st Amendment Act

b) 19th Amendment Act d) 23rd Amendment Act

Explanation

The twenty first Amendment Act of the constitution of India, officially known as the Constitution Act, 1967 amended the Eighth schedule of the Constitution to include Sindhi as one of the languages listed in the schedule.

75. Which of these languages were included by the 71st Amendment Act of the constitution?

a) Konkani c) Manipuri

b) Nepali d) All the above

Explanation

The Eight schedule of the Indian Constitution had 14 languages. The 71st Amendment enacted in 1992 included three more languages Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali.

76. Who was in charge of the Language Committee of the Constituent Assembly of the Indian Constitution?

a) Moutri Satyanarayana c) Rajendra Prasad

b) K M Munshi d) G V Mavlankar

Explanation

Moutri Stayanarayana was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India from 1948-1950. He was a member of drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution for its Language section.

77. Match

A. Drafting Committee i) Vallabhai Patel

B. Provincial Constitution Committee ii) Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Union Power Committee iii) Rajendra Prasad

D. Steering Committee iv) B.R.Ambedkar

a) ii, iii, i, iv c) iv, i, ii, iii

b) i, iii, ii, iv d) iii, iv, ii, i

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly appointed 22 committees to deal different tasks of constitution making.

Major Committees:

Drafting Committee- B.R.Ambedkar

Provincial Constitution Committee-Sardar Vallabhai Patel

Union Power Committee & Union Constitution Committee- Jawaharlal Nehru

Steering Committee & Rules of Procedure Committee- Rajendra Prasad

78. When did the Tamil Language was legally recognised as a Classical Language of India?

a) 2002 c) 2005

b) 2004 d) 2008

Explanation

Tamil was the first classical language of India. The Indian Government gave the status of classical language in the year 2004.

79. How many Indian Languages are given the status of Classical status so far?

a) 5 c) 6

b) 7 d) 8

Explanation

In 2004, the Indian Government decided to create new category of languages called as Classical Languages. So far, the six languages are granted the status of Classical language.

80. How many types of Emergencies are described in the Constitution of India?

a) 4 c) 5

b) 3 d) 2

Explanation

The Central Government has been vested with extra ordinary powers to deal with conditions of emergency. Three types of emergencies are envisaged in the constitution.

81. Who is responsible for declaring the National emergency in India?

a) The President c) The Parliament

b) The Supreme Court d) The Prime Minister

Explanation

The President under the Article 352 can declare emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or in case of any imminent danger.

82. Which of these years the National Emergency was declared in India?

a) 1961, 1971, 1974 c) 1962, 1971, 1975

b) 1960, 1972, 1976 d) 1963, 1972, 1975

Explanation

The National Emergency under Article 352 has been declared three times so far in the year 1962, 1971 and 1975.

83. Identify the Correct statements

i) The State Emergency is declared by the Governor of that particular state.

ii) The States does not lose their autonomy in Legislative matters in emergency conditions.

iii) The Continuance of emergency is possible when the election commission certifies difficulties in holding the Assembly Elections.

a) i , iii only c) ii and iii only

b) ii only d) iii only

Explanation

Under Article 356, the President can declare a State emergency if the Governor reports the situation has arisen to declare emergency. The continuance of Emergency can go beyond one year if Article 352 is on operation or the Election Commission certifies difficulties in holding the Assembly Elections. The State loses much of their autonomy in Legislative and executive matters.

84. How many times the State Emergency has been declared in Tamil Nadu so far?

a) 4 c) 3

b) 2 d) 5

Explanation

The State Emergency Act has been declared in Tamil Nadu for Four times in the years 1976, 1980, 1988 and 1991.

85. Which was referred as a Dead Letter of the Constitution by Dr.B.R.Ambedkar?

a) National Emergency c) State emergency

b) Financial Emergency d) All the above

Explanation

Dr.B.R.Ambedkar said that State Emergency is as a Dead Letter of the constitution which needs to be used sparingly.

86. By which Amendment Act the emergency period was extended to one year ordinary period?

a) 42nd Amendment Act c) 45th Amendment Act

b) 44th Amendment Act d) 40th Amendment Act

Explanation

The 44th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution in the year 1978 restored the one year period back to 6 months. The Operation of emergency was 3years divided into first one year of Ordinary period and 2 years of extra ordinary period for some conditions to be fulfilled.

87. Which of these States has not been declared with the State Emergency?

a) Bihar c) Uttar Pradesh

c) Punjab d) Chhattisgarh

Explanation

A State of Emergency can be declared in any state of India under Article 356 on the recommendations of the State Governor. Every state in India except Telangana and Chhattisgarh has been under a State of emergency at some point of time.

88. The Financial Emergency under article 360 states that

i) The President can declare the financial emergency in India.

ii) Salaries of Supreme Court judges cannot be reduced under this emergency act.

iii) It is declared when the president is satisfied with the instability financial condition in India.

a) i only c) ii and iii only

b) i and iii only d) iii only

Explanation

The Article 360 authorises the President to declare financial emergency if he is satisfied that the financial stability or credit of India or of any parts is in danger. In this type of emergency the salaries and allowances of all persons serving Union and State including the Judges of Supreme court and High Court can be reduced by an order of the President.

89. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Amendments of the Constitution?

a) Part XX c) Part XVI

b) Part XII d) Part XVII

Explanation

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution in Part XX deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedures.

90. Which of these can initiate an Amendment of the Constitution?

a) Lok Sabha only c) State Legislative Assembly

b) Rajya Sabha only d) either a or b

Explanation

An Amendment of the Constitution may be initiated by a Bill in either House of Parliament.

91. State the correct order of an Amendment procedure

i) The President gives his assent to the Bill.

ii) The Bill is passed in each house of the parliament by a majority of the total membership.

iii) An Amendment can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either House of Parliament.

iv) The majority of a house should not be less than two-thirds of the members of that house present on voting.

a) iii, ii, iv, i c) i, iii, iv, ii

b) iii, iv, i, ii d) ii, iii, iv, i

Explanation

An Amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by a bill introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament. The Bill should pass with majority of not less than two-thirds of the total members present for voting. The Bill can be presented to the President for his assent to the bill.

92. In how many ways the constitution can be amended?

a) 2 c) 3

b) 4 d) 5

Explanation

Article 368 provides three ways of amendments by simple majority of the parliament and special majority of the parliament and the ratification of half of the state legislatures.

93. In which year the first constitutional Amendment Act was passed?

a) 1950 c) 1951

b) 1952 d) 1953

Explanation

The First Constitutional Amendment Act was passed in the year 1951 which added the ninth schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included from the judicial review.

94. Which of these Union Territory was included in the Indian Union by the Tenth Constitutional Amendment?

a) Goa c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

b) Pondicherry d) New Delhi

Explanation

The Tenth constitutional Amendment Act was passed in the year 1961 which incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Indian Union.

95. Which Amendment is considered as the mini Constitution of India?

a) 40th Amendment Act c) First Amendment Act

b) 42^nd Amendment Act d) 32^nd Amendment Act

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment of the constitution is known as the mini constitution. It was passed in the year 1976.

96. Which of these Articles were modified by the 103rd amendment act of the Indian Constitution?

a) Article 14 and 15 c) Article 15 and 16

b) Article 12 and 13 d) Article 10 and 15

Explanation

The Constitution one hundred and third amendment act of 2019 changed two fundamental rights of Article 15 and 16. It provides for the advancement of the economically weaker sections of the society.

97. Which Amendment Act commenced the enactment of GST in India?

a) 101^st Amendment Act, 2018 c) 101^st Amendment Act, 2016

b) 100^th Amendment Act, 2015 d) 102^nd Amendment Act, 2018

Explanation

Goods and service Tax (GST) has commenced with the enactment of the 101st Constitution Amendment Act on 8th September 2016.

98. Which Commission reviewed the working of the Constitution?

a) NCRWC c) NCSC

b) NHRC d) SPSC

Explanation

The National Commission to review the working of the Constitution (NCRWC) was set up by the resolution of the Government of India in the year 2000.

99. In which year the National Commission was appointed to review the Constitution by the Government of India?

a) 2000 c) 2006

b) 2002 d) 2005

Explanation

The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution was set up by a resolution of the Government of India in 2000 headed by M.N.Venkatachaliah.

100. Assertion (A): In the year 2007 the Review Commission was set up by the then Government headed by the former Chief Justice of India M.M.Punchchi.

Reasoning (R): It was set up to take a fresh look at relative roles and responsibilities of various levels Of the Government and their inter-relations.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

In April 2007, a three member commission headed by the former Chief Justice of India M.M.Punchchi was set up by the then Government to take a fresh look at relative roles and responsibilities of various levels of Government and their inter-relations.