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Reproduction in Plants and Animals Online Test 10th Science Lesson 17 Questions in English

Reproduction in Plants and Animals Online Test 10th Science Lesson 17 Questions in English

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Question 1
  • Assertion (A): All living organisms have the ability to produce of its own kind by reproduction.
  •    Reasoning(R): Reproduction ensures continuity and survival of the species on earth.
A
Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is True but R is False.
D
Both A and R is False.
Question 1 Explanation: 
“Living organisms cannot survive for an indefinite period on earth. All living organisms have the ability to produce more of its own kind by the process called reproduction. Reproduction is the unfolding of life forms where new individuals are formed. It ensures continuity and survival of the species. This process is to preserve individual species and it is called as self-perpetuation.
Question 2
Which of these contain the genetic materials of living organisms?
A
Gametes
B
Embryo
C
Estrogen
D
Placenta
Question 2 Explanation: 
In sexual reproduction off springs are produced by the union of male and female gametes (sperm and egg). The male and female gametes contain the genetic material or genes present on the chromosomes which transmit the characteristic traits to the next generation.
Question 3
Which of the following is not a plant reproduction method?
A
Vegetative
B
Chemical
C
Asexual
D
Sexual
Question 3 Explanation: 
There are three types of reproduction in plants namely i) Vegetative ii) Asexual and iii) Sexual reproduction.
Question 4
Choose the incorrect statements about the vegetative reproduction method.
  1. New plants are formed from vegetative cells or from the plant organs.
  2. Part of a plant detached from the parent body and grows into an independent plant.
  3. No mitotic division and only has the gametic fusion.
  4. The daughter plants are genetically different from the parent plant.
A
i, iii, iv only
B
ii, iv only
C
i, ii only
D
iii, iv only
Question 4 Explanation: 
In this type, new plantlets are formed from vegetative (somatic) cells, buds or organs of plant. The vegetative part of plant (root, stem, leaf or bud) gets detached from the parent body and grows into an independent daughter plant. It has only mitotic division, no gametic fusion and daughter plants are genetically similar to the parent plant.
Question 5
Which of these plant parts can produce the vegetative reproduction?
A
Bulbils
B
Leaves
C
Roots
D
All the above
Question 5 Explanation: 
Vegetative reproduction may take place through leaves, stems, roots and bulbils.
Question 6
In which of these plants leaves are involved in reproduction?
A
Pteridophytes
B
Drosophila
C
Bryophyllum
D
Bryophytes
Question 6 Explanation: 
Leaves: In Bryophyllum small plants grow at the leaf notches.
Question 7
Which part of strawberry plant is involved in vegetative reproduction?
A
Stems
B
Leaves
C
Fruits
D
Roots
Question 7 Explanation: 
Stems: In strawberry aerial weak stems touch the ground and give off adventitious roots and buds. When the connections with the parent plant are broken, the offspring become independent.
Question 8
Which of the following does not reproduce using its roots?
A
Asparagus
B
Sweet potato
C
Agave
D
Parsnip
Question 8 Explanation: 
Root: Tuberous roots (Asparagus and Sweet potato) can be used for vegetative propagation.
Question 9
Which part of plants is modified as bulbils in some plants?
A
Roots
B
Flower buds
C
Leaves
D
Stems
Question 9 Explanation: 
Bulbils: In some plants the flower buds modified into globose which are called as bulbils, when these falls on the ground they grow into new plants. e.g. Agave.
Question 10
Which of these is not a type of vegetative reproduction?
A
Fragmentation
B
Gametes fusion
C
Budding
D
Regeneration
Question 10 Explanation: 
Other types of Vegetative Reproduction: Fragmentation, Fission, Budding and Regeneration.
Question 11
Choose the Incorrect statements.
  1. Fragmentation is breaking the filamentous algae into many fragments.
  2. Each fragment has at least one cell to form a new filament of algae by cell division.
  3. Agave is an example for the fragmentation reproduction.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
None of the above
Question 11 Explanation: 
Fragmentation: In filamentous algae breaking of the filament into many fragments is called fragmentation. Each fragment having at least one cell, may give rise to a new filament of the algae by cell division e.g. Spirogyra.
Question 12
Identify the Incorrect match.
  1. Regeneration              i) Planaria
  2. Fission                           ii) Asparagus
  3. Fragmentation            iii) Spirogyra
  4. Budding                          iv) Yeast
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
iv only
Question 12 Explanation: 
Fission: In this type the parent cell divides into two daughter cells and each cell develops into a new adult organism e.g. Amoeba. Budding: Formation of a daughter individual from a small projection, the bud, arising on the parent body is called budding. e.g. Yeast.Regeneration: The ability of the lost body parts of an individual organism to give rise to an whole new organism is called regeneration. It takes place by specialized mass of cells e.g Hydra and Planaria.
Question 13
How many daughter cells are divided from the parent cell by the fission method?
A
4
B
10
C
2
D
5
Question 13 Explanation: 
Fission: In this type the parent cell divides into two daughter cells and each cell develops into a new adult organism e.g. Amoeba.
Question 14
Choose the correct statements about the asexual reproduction method.
  1. Offspring is produced by a single parent without forming fusion of gametes.
  2.  Both the mitotic and meiosis cell divisions occur.
  3. Parent and the off springs are not identical and they are genetically different.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
All the above
Question 14 Explanation: 
Production of an offspring by a single parent without the formation and fusion of gametes is called asexual reproduction. It involves only mitotic cell divisions and meiosis does not occur. Offspring produced by asexual reproduction are not only identical to parents but are also exact copies of their parent.
Question 15
Which of these reproduce by the asexual reproduction method?
A
Amoeba
B
Hydra
C
Bacteria
D
Yeast
Question 15 Explanation: 
Asexual reproduction occurs by spore formation. This is the most common method of asexual reproduction in fungi and bacteria.
Question 16
Arrange the correct order of the asexual reproduction process.
  1. Each nucleus with small amount of cytoplasm develops into a spore.
  2. Asexual reproduction occurs by spore formation.
  3. Nucleus is divided several times within the sporangium.
  4. Spores are liberated and developed as a new hypha after reaching ground or substratum.
  5. Sporangium is developed from the fungal hypha.
A
i, iv, ii, iii, v
B
ii, v, iii, i, iv
C
iii, iv, v, i, ii
D
iv, iii, i, ii, v
Question 16 Explanation: 
Asexual reproduction occurs by spore formation. During spore formation a structure called sporangium develops from the fungal hypha. The nucleus divides several times within the sporangium and each nucleus with small amount of cytoplasm develops into a spore. The spores are liberated and they develop into new hypha after reaching the ground or substratum.
Question 17
  • Assertion (A): In a sexual reproduction process two gametes are fused to produce off springs.
  • Reasoning(R): Male and female sex organs are needed to produce gametes in sexual reproduction.
A
Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is True but R is False.
D
Both A and R is False.
Question 17 Explanation: 
Sexual reproduction is the process in which two gametes (male and female) are fused to produce offspring of their own kind. In such cases both sexes, male and female sex organs are needed to produce gametes.
Question 18
Match the flower parts.
  1. Gynoecium                i) Petals
  2. Calyx                         ii) Carpels
  3. Androecium            iii) Sepals
  4. Corolla                     iv) Stamens
A
i, iii, iv, ii
B
iv, iii, i, ii
C
ii, iii, iv, i
D
iv, i, ii, iii
Question 18 Explanation: 
A flower is a modified shoot with limited growth to carry out sexual reproduction. A flower consists of four whorls borne on a thalamus. These whorls are from outside Calyx – consisting of sepals Corolla – consisting of petals Androecium – consisting of stamens Gynoecium or pistil – consisting of carpels
Question 19
Which of these parts of plants take part in sexual reproduction?
A
Gynoecium
B
Leaves
C
Calyx
D
Corolla
Question 19 Explanation: 
The two outermost whorls calyx and corolla are non–essential or accessory whorls as they do not directly take part in the reproduction. The other two whorls androecium and gynoecium are known as the essential whorls, because both take part directly in reproduction.
Question 20
In which part of the plant pollen grains are produced?
A
Calyx
B
Anther
C
Corolla
D
Stems
Question 20 Explanation: 
Androecium: Androecium, the male part of flower is composed of stamens. Each stamen consists of a stalk called the filament and a small bag like structure called anther at the tip. The pollen grains are produced in the anther within the pollen sac.
Question 21
Choose the Incorrect statements.
  1. Pollen grains are usually disc like shaped with a three layered wall.
  2. The Hard outer layer is known as exine with germpores.
  3. Intine is a thin inner layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
All the above
Question 21 Explanation: 
Pollen grain: Pollen grains are usually spherical in shape. It has two layered wall. The hard outer layer is known as exine. It has prominent apertures called germpore. The inner thin layer is known as intine. It is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
Question 22
Which of these pollen cells divides mitotically?
A
Vegetative cell
B
Nucleus
C
Generative cell
D
Cellulose
Question 22 Explanation: 
Mature pollen grains contain two cells, the vegetative and the generative cell. Vegetative cell contains a large nucleus. The generative cell divides mitotically to form two male gametes.
Question 23
Which is not a part of gynoecium?
A
Ovary
B
Intine
C
Style
D
Stigma
Question 23 Explanation: 
Gynoecium: Gynoecium is the female part of the flower and is made up of carpels. It has three parts: Ovary, Style and Stigma
Question 24
  • Assertion (A): Androecium is the male part of plant composed of stamens.
  • Reasoning(R): The female part of plant is made up of carpels called as Gynoecium.
A
Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is True but R is False.
D
Both A and R is False.
Question 24 Explanation: 
Androecium, the male part of flower is composed of stamens. Gynoecium is the female part of the flower and is made up of carpels.
Question 25
Which of these statements are not true regarding the gynoecium part of a plant?
A
Nucellus is the main part of the ovule.
B
Nucellus is enclosed by two integuments and an opening called micropyle.
C
Ovule is attached to the ovary by carpels.
D
Chalaza is the basal part.
Question 25 Explanation: 
The main part of the ovule is the nucellus which is enclosed by two integuments leaving an opening called as micropyle. The ovule is attached to the ovary wall by a stalk known as funiculus. Chalaza is the basal part.
Question 26
How many cells are there in an embryo sac?
A
7
B
5
C
3
D
2
Question 26 Explanation: 
The embryo sac contains seven cells and the eighth nuclei located within the nucellus.
Question 27
Choose the correct statements about the cells of embryo sac.
  1. Five cells at the chalaza end are called as antipodal cells.
  2. ii) Two nuclei cells found in the center are called as polar nuclei.
  3. iii) The egg apparatus contain two egg cells and single synergids.a
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
All the above
Question 27 Explanation: 
Three cells at the micropylar end form the egg apparatus and the three cells at the chalaza end are the antipodal cells. The remaining two nuclei are called polar nuclei found in the center. In the egg apparatus one is the egg cell (female gamete) and the remaining two cells are the synergids.
Question 28
Which is a process of sexual reproduction in the flowering plants?
A
Pollination and Fertilization
B
Fragmentation and Fission
C
Spore formation
D
Cell division
Question 28 Explanation: 
Process of sexual reproduction in flowering plants involves: Pollination and Fertilization
Question 29
Define pollination.
A
Meiosis cell division method.
B
Producing spores by asexual reproduction.
C
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of a flower.
D
Producing the gametes used for reproduction.
Question 29 Explanation: 
The transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of a flower is called as pollination.
Question 30
Which of these are not the significances of pollination?
A
Asexual reproduction
B
Fruits and seed formation
C
Fertilization
D
Cross pollination for creating new varieties.
Question 30 Explanation: 
Importance of Pollination: It results in fertilization which leads to the formation of fruits and seed. New varieties of plants are formed through new combination of genes in case of cross pollination.
Question 31
Which of this plant is an example for self-pollination or Autogamy?
A
Bryophyllum
B
Asparagus
C
Hibiscus
D
Hydra
Question 31 Explanation: 
Self-pollination (Autogamy): Self-pollination is also known as autogamy. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of same flower or another flower borne on the same plant is known as self-pollination. e.g. Hibiscus.
Question 32
What are the advantages of self-pollination?
A
Possible in bisexual flowers.
B
Does not depend on pollination agents.
C
No wastage of pollen grains.
D
All the above
Question 32 Explanation: 
Advantages of self-pollination: Self-pollination is possible in bisexual flowers. Flowers do not depend on agents for pollination. There is no wastage of pollen grains.
Question 33
Which is not a disadvantage of self-pollination?
A
Less number of seeds.
B
Very big endosperm.
C
New varieties are not possible.
D
Seeds produce weak plants.
Question 33 Explanation: 
Disadvantages of self-pollination: The seeds are less in numbers. The endosperm is minute. Therefore, the seeds produce weak plants. New varieties of plants cannot be produced.
Question 34
Which of these plants reproduce by cross-pollination?
A
Apples
B
Grapes
C
Plums
D
All the above
Question 34 Explanation: 
Cross-pollination is the transfer of pollen from the anthers of a flower to the stigma of a flower on another plant of the same species e.g. apples, grapes, plum, etc.
Question 35
Which of the following are the advantages of cross pollination?
A
Better plants by proper germination.
B
New varieties of plants are possible.
C
More viable seeds are produced.
D
All the above
Question 35 Explanation: 
Advantages of cross pollination: The seeds produced as a result of cross pollination, develop and germinate properly and grow into better plants, cross pollination leads to the production of new varieties. More viable seeds are produced.
Question 36
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of cross pollination?
A
Failure in pollination due to distance barrier.
B
Less wastage of pollen grains.
C
Unwanted characters may be introduced in plants.
D
External agencies are needed for pollination.
Question 36 Explanation: 
Disadvantages of cross-pollination: Pollination may fail due to distance barrier. More wastage of pollen grains. It may introduce some unwanted characters Flowers depend on the external agencies for pollination.
Question 37
Which of the following are the agents for cross pollination?
A
Animals
B
Water
C
Wind
D
All the above
Question 37 Explanation: 
In order to bring about cross pollination, it is necessary that the pollen should be carried from one flower to another of a different plant. This takes place through the agency of animals, insects, wind and water.
Question 38
Choose the correct statements.
  1. Anemophily is the pollination method carried out by the wind.
  2. ii) The anemophilous flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains.
  3. iii) Pollen grains off this pollination are small, smooth, dry and light weighted.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
All the above
Question 38 Explanation: 
The pollination with the help of wind is called anemophily. The anemophilous flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains. The pollen grains are small, smooth, dry and light in weight. Pollen of such plants is blown off at a distance of more than 1,000 km. The stigmas are comparatively large, protruding and sometimes hairy to trap the pollen grains. e.g. Grasses and some cacti.
Question 39
  • Assertion (A): Pollination with the help of insects is called as entomophily.
  • Reasoning(R): The flowers attract the insects by their bright color, smell and nectar.
A
Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is True but R is False.
D
Both A and R is False.
Question 39 Explanation: 
Pollination with the help of insects like honey bees, flies are called entomophily. To attract insects these flowers are brightly colored, have smell and nectar. The pollen grains are larger in size, the exine is pitted, spiny etc., so they can be adhered firmly on the sticky stigma.
Question 40
Which of these insect does the major entomophily pollination?
A
Ants
B
Bumble bees
C
Honey bees
D
Grass hoppers
Question 40 Explanation: 
Approximately, 80% of the pollination done by the insects is carried by honey bees.
Question 41
By which of this method the aquatic plants are pollinated?
A
Hydrophily
B
Entomophily
C
Anemophily
D
Zoophily
Question 41 Explanation: 
Pollination by water: The pollination with the help of water is called hydrophily. This takes place in aquatic plants. Pollen grains are produced in large numbers. Pollen grains float on surface of water till they land on the stigma of female flowers e.g. Hydrilla, Vallisneria.
Question 42
Which of these pollinates the silk cotton tree?
A
Sun bird
B
Squirrels
C
Honey bees
D
Lady bug
Question 42 Explanation: 
Pollination by Animals: When pollination takes place with the help of animals, it is called Zoophily. Flowers of such plants attract animals by their bright color, size, scent etc. e.g. sun bird pollinates flowers of Canna, Gladioli etc., Squirrels pollinate flowers of silk cotton tree.
Question 43
Match
  1. Zoophily                i) Cacti
  2. Anemophily            ii) Honey bees
  3. Entomophily            iii) Hydrilla
  4. Hydrophily                iv) Canna flowers
A
iii, iv ,i, ii
B
iv, iii, ii, i
C
iv, i, ii, iii
D
iii, i, ii, iv
Question 43 Explanation: 
The pollination with the help of wind is called anemophily. E.g. Grasses and some cacti. Pollination with the help of insects like honey bees, flies are called entomophily. The pollination with the help of water is called hydrophily. E.g. Hydrilla, Vallisneria. When pollination takes place with the help of animals, it is called Zoophily. E.g. sun bird pollinates flowers of Canna, Gladioli etc., Squirrels pollinate flowers of silk cotton tree.
Question 44
What is termed as double fertilization?
A
The process of two types of fusion syngamy and triple fusion in embryo sac.
B
Sperm fuses with the secondary nucleus to form the nucleus.
C
Sperm fuses with the egg and forms a triploid zygote.
D
None of the above
Question 44 Explanation: 
One sperm fuses with the egg (syngamy) and forms a diploid zygote. The other sperm fuses with the secondary nucleus (Triple fusion) to form the primary endosperm nucleus which is triploid in nature. Since two types of fusion syngamy and triple fusion take place in an embryo sac the process is termed as double fertilization.
Question 45
What are the post fertilization changes?
A
Seed development from the ovule.
B
Development of seed coat by the integuments of the ovule.
C
Fruit development by the enlargement of ovary.
D
All the above
Question 45 Explanation: 
Post fertilization changes: The ovule develops into a seed. The integuments of the ovule develop into the seed coat. The ovary enlarges and develops into a fruit.
Question 46
Which of these contains the future plant?
A
Seed
B
Gamete
C
Zygote
D
Embryo
Question 46 Explanation: 
The seed contains the future plant or embryo which develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions.
Question 47
  • Assertion (A): Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two haploid cells to form a diploid zygote.
  • Reasoning(R): Reproductive organs are divided into primary and secondary sex organs.
A
Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is True but R is False.
D
Both A and R is False.
Question 47 Explanation: 
Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of two haploid gametes (male and the female gametes) to form a diploid individual (zygote). Organs of the reproductive system are divided into primary and secondary (accessory) sex organs.
Question 48
Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ of a male?
A
Vas deferens
B
Cervix
C
Seminal vesicle
D
Epididymis
Question 48 Explanation: 
Primary reproductive organs include the gonads (Testes in male and Ovaries in female). Accessory sex organs Male: Vas deferens, epididymis, seminal, vesicle, prostate gland and penis. Female: Fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix and vagina.
Question 49
In which of this process the secondary sex organs are involved?
A
Ovulation process
B
Fertilization
C
Foetus development and child birth
D
All the above
Question 49 Explanation: 
The secondary (accessory) sex organs include those structures which are involved in the Process of ovulation, Fusion of the male and female gametes (fertilization), Division of the fertilized egg up to the formation of embryo, Pregnancy, Development of foetus and Child birth.
Question 50
Which of these are true regarding the testes of male?
A
Oval shaped reproductive gland of male.
B
Testes are kept inside a sac like structure scrotum.
C
Lies outside the abdominal cavity of a man.
D
All the above
Question 50 Explanation: 
Testes are the reproductive glands of the male that are oval shaped organs which lie outside the abdominal cavity of a man in a sac like structure called scrotum.
Question 51
Which of this tissue covers the testes of male reproductive system?
A
Seminiferous tubules
B
Tunica albuginea
C
Sertoli cells
D
Haploid cells
Question 51 Explanation: 
Each testis is covered with a layer of fibrous tissue called tunica albuginea. Many septa from this layer divide the testes into pyramidal lobules, in which lie seminiferous tubules, cells of Sertoli, and the Leydig cells (interstitial cells).
Question 52
Which of the following cells support and provide nutrients to the developing sperms?
A
Follicle cells
B
Haploid cells
C
Leydig cells
D
Sertoli cells
Question 52 Explanation: 
The process of spermatogenesis takes place in the seminiferous tubules. The Sertoli cells are the supporting cells and provide nutrients to the developing sperms.
Question 53
Which of these initiates the spermatogenesis process?
A
Luteinizing hormones
B
Leydig cells
C
Mitochondria
D
Graafian follicle
Question 53 Explanation: 
The Leydig cells are polyhedral in shape and lie between the seminiferous tubules and secrete testosterone. It initiates the process of spermatogenesis.
Question 54
Choose the Incorrect statements.
  1. The ovaries are located on the right side of the lower abdomen.
  2. ii) Ovaries lie near the lateral end of fallopian tube.
  3. iii) Ovary is a compact structure of an outer cortex and an inner medulla layer.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
All the above
Question 54 Explanation: 
The ovaries are located on either side of the lower abdomen composed of two almond shaped bodies each lying near the lateral end of fallopian tube. Each ovary is a compact structure consisting of an outer cortex and an inner medulla.
Question 55
Which of these cells in the ovum forms the primary follicle?
A
Haploid cells
B
Cytoplasm
C
Granulosa cells
D
Gametes
Question 55 Explanation: 
The cortex is composed of a network of connective tissue called as stroma and is lined by the germinal epithelium. The epithelial cells called the granulosa cells surround each ovum in the ovary together forming the primary follicle.
Question 56
Name the fluid that fills the grown ovum.
A
Graafian follicle
B
Haploid
C
Perivitelline
D
Hyaluronidase
Question 56 Explanation: 
As the egg grows larger, the follicle also enlarges and gets filled with the fluid and is called the Graafian follicle.
Question 57
Which of the following is not a function of gametogenesis?
A
Sperm formation in male and ovum in the female
B
Involves spermatogenesis and oogenesis process.
C
Produce gametes with haploid cells.
D
Provides sperm motility in fertilization.
Question 57 Explanation: 
The formation of the sperm in male and the ovum in female is called gametogenesis. It involves spermatogenesis (formation of spermatozoa) and oogenesis (the formation of ova). Gametes with haploid cells are produced through gametogenesis.
Question 58
Which part of the spermatozoa is formed by the condensation of nucleus?
A
Sperm head
B
Tail part
C
Middle piece
D
All the above
Question 58 Explanation: 
The spermatozoa consist of head a middle piece and tail. The sperm head is elongated and formed by the condensation of nucleus.
Question 59
Name the cap like structure of the anterior part of spermatozoa?
A
Ribosome
B
Acrosome
C
Lysosome
D
None of the above
Question 59 Explanation: 
The anterior portion of spermatozoan has a cap like structure called acrosome. It contains hyaluronidase an enzyme that helps the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization.
Question 60
What are the significances of the middle part of the spermatozoan?
A
Contains the mitochondria.
B
Energy supply for the tail movement.
C
Provides sperm motility for fertilization.
D
All the above
Question 60 Explanation: 
The spermatozoan has a short neck connects the head and middle piece which comprises the centrioles. The middle piece contains the mitochondria provides energy for the movement of tail. It brings about sperm motility which is essential for fertilization.
Question 61
Choose the Incorrect statements about the human ovum.
  1. The shape of a mature ovum or egg is spherical.
  2. ii) The ovum contains the yolk in the middle.
  3. iii) Ovum contains cytoplasm and the nucleus.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
None of the above
Question 61 Explanation: 
The mature ovum or egg is spherical in shape. The ovum is almost free of yolk. It contains abundant cytoplasm and the nucleus.
Question 62
How many membranes surround the ovum?
A
5
B
7
C
3
D
4
Question 62 Explanation: 
The ovum is surrounded by three membranes. The plasma membrane is surrounded by inner thin zona pellucida and an outer thick corona radiata. The corona radiata is formed of follicle cells.
Question 63
Which of these membranes forms the surface layer of the ovum?
A
Vitelline Membrane
B
Mucous Membranes
C
Serous Membranes
D
Epithelial Membranes
Question 63 Explanation: 
The membrane forming the surface layer of the ovum is called vitelline membrane. The fluid-filled space between zona pellucida and the surface of the egg is called Perivitelline space.
Question 64
Choose the correct statements.
  1. In the puberty period the female reproductive system becomes functional.
  2. ii) Girls reach puberty between 11 to 13 years.
  3. iii) Puberty starts earlier in males than in females.
  4. iv) Onset of puberty is triggered by the testosterone hormone in male.
A
i, ii only
B
i, iii, iv only
C
ii, iv only
D
iii, iv only
Question 64 Explanation: 
Puberty: The reproductive system in both males and females becomes functional and an increase in sex hormone production resulting in puberty. This phenomenon tends to start earlier in females than in males. Generally boys attain puberty between the ages of 13 to 14 years, while girls reach puberty between 11 to 13 years. In male, the onset of puberty is triggered by the secretion of the hormone testosterone in the testes, in female the secretion of estrogens and progesterone from the ovary.
Question 65
Which of the following is responsible for the secretion of both male and female hormones?
A
Luteinizing Hormone and Follicle stimulating hormone
B
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
C
Estrogen and Progesterone
D
Anti-Mullerian Hormone
Question 65 Explanation: 
The secretion of both male and female hormones is under the control of the pituitary gonadotropins luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
Question 66
What are the significances of the menstrual cycle in female human?
A
Cyclic events during the reproductive period of a women's life.
B
Menstrual cycle starts at the age of 11-13 years.
C
It marks the onset of the puberty and called as menarche.
D
All the above
Question 66 Explanation: 
The cyclic events that take place in a rhythmic fashion during the reproductive period of a woman’s life is called menstrual cycle. In human females the menstrual cycle starts at the age of 11-13 years which marks the onset of puberty and is called menarche, and ceases around 48-50 years of age and this stage is termed menopause.
Question 67
What is the minimum time repetition duration for a healthy menstrual flow?
A
35 days
B
15 days
C
28 days
D
45 days
Question 67 Explanation: 
The reproductive period is marked by characteristic events repeated almost every month in physiologically normal women (28 days with minor variation) in the form of a menstrual flow.
Question 68
Which is not a menstrual cycle phase?
A
Fertilization phase
B
Destructive phase
C
Proliferative phase
D
Ovulatory phase
Question 68 Explanation: 
The menstrual cycle consists of 4 phases: Menstrual or Destructive Phase, Follicular or Proliferative Phase, Ovulatory Phase and Luteal or Secretory Phase.
Question 69
What are the hormonal changes in the menstrual phase of women?
A
FSH and estrogen increase
B
LH and FSH decrease
C
Decrease in progesterone and estrogen
D
Peak LH
Question 70
What are the changes in the follicular phase of a women cycle?
A
Increase in endometrial thickness.
B
Primary follicles grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle.
C
Breakdown of uterine endometrial lining leads to bleeding.
D
Development of primary follicles.
Question 71
In which day of the women menstrual cycle the ovulatory phase begin?
A
14th day
B
4th day
C
28th day
D
7th day
Question 72
What is the significance of the fertilization?  
A
Seedling under appropriate conditions.
B
New character from two different individuals
C
Stimulating ovary to develop into fruit.
D
Both b and c
Question 72 Explanation: 
Significance of Fertilization: It stimulates the ovary to develop into fruit. It helps in development of new characters from two different individuals.
Question 73
Which of these hormones is at peak in the ovulatory phase?
A
FSH
B
LH
C
Estrogen
D
Progesterone
Question 74
Which of these statements is not true regarding the luteal phase of women?
A
Emptied Graafian follicle develops into corpus luteum.
B
Occurs from the 15th–28th day of menstrual cycle.
C
Increase in endometrial thickness.
D
Endometrium is prepared for implantation if fertilization of egg takes place.
Question 75
In which phase of the menstrual cycle the emptied Graafian follicle develops into corpus luteum?
A
Luteal phase
B
Follicular phase
C
Menstrual phase
D
Ovulatory phase
Question 75 Explanation: 
Events of Menstrual Cycle and the Role of Hormones
Question 76
Which of these hormones does not make changes in the ovary and the uterus?
A
Estrogen hormone
B
Calcitonin hormone
C
Progesterone hormone
D
Follicle stimulating hormone
Question 76 Explanation: 
Changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by the pituitary hormones (LH and FSH) and ovarian hormones (estrogen and progesterone).
Question 77
Choose the Incorrect statements.
  1. Human fertilization is internal and occurs at the female genital tract.
  2. ii) Fertilization takes place in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.
  3. iii) Fertilization must take place within 24 days.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
All the above
Question 77 Explanation: 
Fertilization in human is internal and occurs in the oviduct of the female genital tract. It takes place usually in the ampulla of the fallopian tube. An oocyte is alive for about 24 hours after it is released from the follicle. Fertilization must take place within 24 hours.
Question 78
Which is called as a fertilized ovum?
A
Gastrula
B
Zygote
C
Cleavage
D
Blastocyst
Question 78 Explanation: 
The sperm enters into the ovum and fuses with it, resulting in the formation of a ‘zygote’. This process is called fertilization. The zygote is a fertilized ovum.
Question 79
What is a cleavage in the process of fertilization?
A
Forming a zygote in the ovum.
B
Rearrangement of cells.
C
Series of rapid mitotic zygote divisions.
D
Attaching the blastocyst into the uterine.
Question 79 Explanation: 
The first cleavage takes place about 30 hours after fertilization. Cleavage is a series of rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote to form many celled blastula (Blastocyst) which comprises an outer layer of smaller cells and inner mass of larger cells.
Question 80
Define implantation.
A
Process of attaching the fertilized egg (blastocyst) to the uterine wall.
B
Formation of germ layers.
C
Transformation of blastula into gastrula.
D
The sperm enters into the ovum and fuses with to form a zygote.
Question 80 Explanation: 
Implantation: The blastocyst (fertilized egg) reaches the uterus and gets implanted in the uterus. The process of attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall (endometrium) is called implantation.
Question 81
After how many days the fertilized egg is implanted in the uterus?
A
15 to 20 days
B
2 to 3 days
C
6 to 7 days
D
10 to 20 days
Question 81 Explanation: 
The fertilized egg becomes implanted in about 6 to 7 days after fertilization.
Question 82
What are the functions of gastrulation stage?
A
Transformation of blastula into gastrula.
B
Formation of primary germ layers.
C
Takes place after the implantation process.
D
All the above
Question 82 Explanation: 
Gastrulation: The transformation of blastula into gastrula and the formation of primary germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm) by rearrangement of the cells is called gastrulation. This takes place after the process of implantation.
Question 83
Which of these is not a germ layer?
A
Ectoderm
B
Endometrium
C
Mesoderm
D
Endoderm
Question 83 Explanation: 
The establishment of the germ layers namely ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm initiates the final phase of embryonic development.
Question 84
At what stage the organs of the foetus attain a functional state?
A
Gastrulation
B
Lactation
C
Organogenesis
D
Implantation
Question 84 Explanation: 
Organogenesis: During organogenesis the various organs of the foetus are established from the different germ layers attaining a functional state.
Question 85
  • Assertion (A): The placenta is a disc shaped structure attached to the uterine wall of the mother.
  • Reasoning(R): Placenta is a permanent association between the developing embryo and maternal tissues.
A
Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is True but R is False.
D
Both A and R is False.
Question 85 Explanation: 
Formation of Placenta: The placenta is a disc shaped structure attached to the uterine wall and is a temporary association between the developing embryo and maternal tissues.
Question 86
What are the usages of the placenta?
A
Exchange of food materials only.
B
Oxygen diffusion and carbon dioxide elimination.
C
Excretion of nitrogenous wastes.
D
All the above
Question 86 Explanation: 
Placenta allows the exchange of food materials, diffusion of oxygen, excretion of nitrogenous wastes and elimination of carbon dioxide.
Question 87
Which of these are connected by the umbilical cord?
A
Placenta and the foetus
B
Pituitary and the placenta
C
Foetus and the uterus
D
Foetus and the embryo
Question 87 Explanation: 
A cord containing blood vessels that connects the placenta with the foetus is called the umbilical cord.
Question 88
What is defined as the gestation period?
A
Time duration for the embryo to develop in the uterus.
B
Process of milk production after the child's birth.
C
Expulsion of young one's from the mother's uterus.
D
Development of two-identical twins.
Question 88 Explanation: 
Pregnancy (Gestation): It is the time period during which the embryo attains its development in the uterus.
Question 89
What is the normal gestation period of human?
A
500 days
B
625 days
C
280 days
D
150 days
Question 89 Explanation: 
Normally gestation period of human last for about 280 days. During pregnancy the uterus expands up to 500 times of its normal size.
Question 90
Choose the correct statements regarding Parturition.
  1. It is the end of gestation period and expulsion of young one from the mother's uterus.
  2. ii) Oxytocin from the posterior pituitary stimulates the contractions and forces to expel the baby from the uterus.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
Both i and ii
D
Neither i nor ii
Question 90 Explanation: 
Parturition (Child Birth): Parturition is the expulsion of young one from the mother’s uterus at the end of gestation. Oxytocin from the posterior pituitary stimulates the uterine contractions and provides force to expel the baby from the uterus, causing birth.
Question 91
  • Assertion (A): Two eggs from ovaries fertilized by a different sperm results in Non-identical Twins.
  • Reasoning(R): Identical twins are developed by a single egg, fertilized and divided into two foetus.
A
Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is True but R is False.
D
Both A and R is False.
Question 91 Explanation: 
Sometimes ovaries releases two eggs and each is fertilized by a different sperm, resulting in Non-Identical Twins (Fraternal Twins). If single egg is fertilized and then divides into two fetuses, Identical Twins develop.
Question 92
Which of the following statements is not true regarding lactation?
A
The process of milk production after child birth from the mammary glands is called lactation.
B
Colostrum is the first liquid released from the mammary glands after child birth.
C
Milk production from the alveoli of mammary glands is stimulated from the posterior pituitary.
D
The milk ejection is stimulated by the oxytocin hormone.
Question 92 Explanation: 
Lactation: The process of milk production after child birth from mammary glands of the mother is called lactation. The first fluid which is released from the mammary gland after child birth is called as colostrum. Milk production from alveoli of mammary glands is stimulated by prolactin secreted from the anterior pituitary. The ejection of milk is stimulated by posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin.
Question 93
Choose the correct statements.
  1. Colostrum is the milk produced during the first 2 to 3 days of child birth.
  2. ii) Colostrum contains immune substances and provides immunity to the new born child.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
Both i and ii
D
Neither i nor ii
Question 93 Explanation: 
The milk produced from the breast during the first 2 to 3 days after child birth is called colostrum. It contains immune substances and provides immunity to the new born which is essential for the body.
Question 94
Which of these are included as the reproductive health by World Health Organization?
A
Ability to reproduce and regulate fertility.
B
Safe child birth.
C
Maternal and infant survival and well-being.
D
All the above
Question 94 Explanation: 
According to World Health Organization (WHO) reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, ability to reproduce and regulate fertility, women's ability to undergo pregnancy and safe child birth, maternal and infant survival and well-being.
Question 95
Which of these are included in the national Family Welfare Program scheme?
  1. Nutritional supplement to pregnant women and children.
  2. ii) Primary education for children below 14.
  3. iii) Maternal and child health care.
  4. iv) Contraception with health education.
A
i, iv only
B
ii, iii, iv only
C
i, iii, iv only
D
iv only
Question 95 Explanation: 
Family welfare program: The National Family Welfare Programme is a comprehensive scheme which includes: Maternal and child health care (MCH) Immunization of mothers, infants and children. Nutritional supplement to pregnant women and children. Contraception with health education, to motivate couples to accept contraceptive methods and to have small family norms which improve economic status, living status and the quality of life.
Question 96
Which of these is not included in the Reproductive and Child Health Care program?
A
Pregnancy and child birth
B
Population control
C
Postnatal care of mother and the child
D
Prevention of reproductive tract infections and sexually transmitted diseases.
Question 96 Explanation: 
Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) Programme: It has integrated all services which include Pregnancy and child birth , Postnatal care of the mother and child, Importance of breast feeding and Prevention of reproductive tract infections and sexually transmitted diseases.
Question 97
When did Indian government launch the nation-wide family planning program?
A
1952
B
1970
C
1959
D
1968
Question 97 Explanation: 
Population explosion defined as the sudden and rapid rise in the size of population especially human population. Realizing the dangers inherent in population growth, the Government of India has taken several measures to check population growth and introduced family planning. India has been one of the first countries in the world to launch the nation-wide family planning program in 1952.
Question 98
Which is considered to be the best birth control measure?
A
Family Planning
B
Knowledge about the population effects.
C
Contraception devices
D
None of the above
Question 98 Explanation: 
Contraception is one of the best birth control measures. A number of techniques or methods have been developed to prevent pregnancies in women. The devices used for contraception are called contraceptive devices.
Question 99
Choose the Incorrect statements regarding the barrier method.
  1. Barrier methods use the pills or tablets to stop the release of egg from the ovary.
  2. ii) These methods can be used to protect against sexually transmitted diseases like syphilis and AIDS.
  3. iii) Condoms and Diaphragm or Cervical cap are used in barrier method to prevent sperms to meet the ovum.
A
i only
B
ii only
C
iii only
D
All the above
Question 99 Explanation: 
Barrier Methods: This method prevents sperms from meeting the ovum. Its entry into the female reproductive tract is prevented by barrier. Condom: Condom prevents deposition of sperms in the vagina. Condoms are made of thin rubber or latex sheath. Condom also protect against sexually transmitted diseases (STD) like syphilis, AIDS. Diaphragm (Cervical cap): Vaginal diaphragm fitting into the vagina or a cervical cap fitting over the cervix. This prevents the entry of sperms into the uterus.
Question 100
Which of these method use pills and tablets for interfere with ovulation process?
A
Hormonal method
B
Barrier method
C
Intra-Uterine devices
D
Tubectomy
Question 100 Explanation: 
Hormonal Methods: Hormonal preparations are in the form of pills or tablets (contraceptive pills). These hormones stop (interfere with ovulation) the release of egg from the ovary.
Question 101
Which of the following statements are not true regarding the Intra-uterine devices?
A
Lippe's loop and Copper-T are the synthetic devices commonly used in India.
B
It is used for reducing the sperm fertilizing capacity and prevents implantation.
C
IUD devices are used for permanent birth control.
D
IUD devices help to give adequate time interval between pregnancies.
Question 101 Explanation: 
Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs): The intrauterine device (IUD) is contraceptive devices inserted into the uterus. There are two synthetic devices commonly used in India are Lippe’s Loop and Copper-T made of copper and plastic (non-irritant). This can remain for a period of 3 years. This reduces the sperm fertilizing capacity and prevents implantation. This also helps to give adequate time interval between pregnancies.
Question 102
  • Assertion (A): The surgical contraception or sterilization techniques are terminal methods for permanent birth control.
  • Reasoning(R): The surgical procedure for male is vasectomy and for female it is Tubectomy.
A
Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.
B
Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C
A is True but R is False.
D
Both A and R is False.
Question 102 Explanation: 
Surgical contraception or sterilization techniques are terminal methods to prevent any pregnancy. This procedure in males is vasectomy (ligation of vas deferens) and in females it is tubectomy (ligation of fallopian tube). These are methods of permanent birth control.
Question 103
Which is not a type of Urinary Tract Infection?
A
Asymptomatic Bacteriuria
B
Thyroid fluctuation
C
Kidney Infection
D
Cystitis Infection
Question 103 Explanation: 
Many diseases affect both women and men, but a few diseases occur at a higher frequency in woman. Women are susceptible to UTI from the bacteria that are present on skin, rectum or vagina. This will enter the urethra, before moving upwards. The types of UTI are: Cystitis or Bladder infection, Kidney Infection and Asymptomatic Bacteriuria.
Question 104
What are the main aspects of hygiene?
A
Food hygiene
B
Body hygiene
C
Environment hygiene
D
All the above
Question 104 Explanation: 
Hygiene is the practice of healthy living and personal cleanliness. Personal hygiene is caring of one’s own body and health. Social hygiene is proper care of the surrounding environment. The main aspect of hygiene is body hygiene, food hygiene, sanitary hygiene and hygienic environment.
Question 105
What are the measures to be taken for maintaining toilet hygiene?
A
Washing hands before and after using toilets.
B
Clean and dry toilet floors to avoid infection and bad odor.
C
All the materials used inside toilet must be cleaned with disinfectants.
D
All the above
Question 105 Explanation: 
The following measures can ensure toilet hygiene: The floors of the toilet should be maintained clean and dry. This helps to reduce the bad odor and also infection. Toilet flush handles, door knobs, faucets, paper towel dispensers, light switches and walls should be cleaned with disinfectants to kill harmful germs and bacteria. Hands should be washed thoroughly with soap before and after toilet use.
Question 106
On which day the world menstrual hygiene day is observed?
A
May 28th
B
March 20th
C
June 1st
D
August 26th
Question 106 Explanation: 
Every year May 28 is observed as Menstrual Hygiene day to make girls and women aware of maintaining menstrual hygiene and importance of menstrual hygiene for good health. By way of awareness through films discussions and campaigns menstrual hygiene has taken quite the center stage in recent days.
Question 107
In which year the Indian government launched the menstrual hygiene scheme?
A
1993
B
2011
C
2001
D
1972
Question 107 Explanation: 
The menstrual hygiene scheme to provide subsidized sanitary napkins was launched by the Health ministry in 2011. In Tamil Nadu, UNICEF has developed an affordable incinerator that uses firewood to handle sanitary napkin waste at schools and special wells are equipped where sanitary napkins are composted.
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Plant and Animal Hormones Online Test 10th Science Lesson 16 Questions in English

Plant and Animal Hormones Online Test 10th Science Lesson 16 Questions in English

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Question 1
What does the word ‘Hormone’?
A
Message
B
Messenger
C
To excite
D
To react
Question 1 Explanation: 
The word hormone is derived from the Greek word “hormon” meaning “to excite”. Both Plants and animals have hormone.
Question 2
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. The function of control and coordination in plants is performed by chemical substances produced by the plants called plant hormones.
  2. In plants several cells are capable of producing hormones
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 2 Explanation: 
The function of control and coordination in plants is performed by chemical substances produced by the plants called plant hormones. In plants several cells are capable of producing hormones. The phytohormones are transported to different parts of the plants to perform various physiological functions.
Question 3
____ acts through chemical messengers, which are produced by specialized glands
A
Endocrine
B
Exocrine
C
Both a and b
D
None
Question 3 Explanation: 
Endocrine glands in vertebrate animals possess a diversified communication system to co-ordinate physiological and metabolic functions by chemical integration. The endocrine system acts through chemical messengers known as hormones which are produced by specialized glands.
Question 4
Which of the following process are controlled by hormones?
  1. Digestion
  2. Metabolism
  3. Growth
  4. Reproduction
A
1, 2, 4
B
2, 3, 4
C
1, 2, 3
D
All the above
Question 4 Explanation: 
Physiological processes such as digestion, metabolism, growth, development and reproduction are controlled by hormones.
Question 5
Which of the following responses in plants are controlled by plant hormones?
  1. Morphology
  2. Physiology
  3. Biochemical response
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 5 Explanation: 
Plant hormones are organic molecules that are produced at extremely low concentration in plants. These molecules control morphological, physiological and biochemical responses.
Question 6
How many major classes of plant hormones are there?
A
5
B
6
C
3
D
9
Question 6 Explanation: 
There are five major classes of plant hormones. They are: Auxins Cytokinin Gibberellins Abscisic Acid (ABA) Ethylene
Question 7
Which of the following plant hormone inhibit plant growth?
  1. Auxins
  2. Abscisic acid
  3. Ethylene
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 7 Explanation: 
Among all these plant hormones auxins, cytokinin and gibberellins promote plant growth while abscisic acid and ethylene inhibit plant growth.
Question 8
Which of the following was the 1st plant hormone to be discovered?
A
Auxin
B
Ethylene
C
Cytokinin
D
Abscisic acid
Question 8 Explanation: 
Auxins (Gk. auxein = to grow) were the first plant hormones discovered. The term auxin was introduced by Kogl and HaagenSmith (1931).
Question 9
Where does the Auxin are produced?
  1. Petals
  2. Tip of root
  3. Tip of stem
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 9 Explanation: 
Auxins are produced at the tip of stems and at the tip of roots from where they migrate to the zone of elongation.
Question 10
Who concluded that some ‘influence’ was transmitted from tip of the coleoptile to basal region?
A
Darwin
B
Einstein
C
Went
D
Mendel
Question 10 Explanation: 
Charles Darwin (1880), observed unilateral growth and curvature of canary grass (Phalaris canariensis) coleoptiles. He came to the conclusion that some ‘influence’ was transmitted from the tip of the coleoptile to the basal region. This ‘influence’ was later identified as Auxin by Went.
Question 11
Who demonstrated the effect of auxin in plants?
A
Darwin
B
Einstein
C
Went
D
Mendel
Question 11 Explanation: 
Frits Warmolt Went (1903– 990), a Dutch biologist demonstrated the existence and effect of auxin in plants. He did a series of experiments in Avena coleoptiles.
Question 12
What does the term “Auxin” mean?
A
To grow
B
To move
C
To elongate
D
To reach
Question 12 Explanation: 
From his experiments Went concluded that a chemical diffusing from the tip of coleoptiles was responsible for growth, and he named it as “Auxin” meaning ‘to grow”.
Question 13
How many types of Auxins are there?
A
2
B
5
C
4
D
3
Question 13 Explanation: 
Types of Auxins: Auxin is a growth hormone. Auxins are classified into two types, namely natural auxins and synthetic auxins.
Question 14
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Auxins produced by the plants are called natural auxins
  2. 2, 4 D (2,4 Di-chloro-phenoxy Acetic Acid) is natural auxins
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 14 Explanation: 
Natural Auxins: Auxins produced by the plants are called natural auxins. Example: IAA (Indole – 3 - Acetic Acid) Synthetic Auxins: Artificially synthesized auxins that have properties like auxins are called as synthetic auxins. Example: 2, 4 D (2,4 Dichlorophenoxy Acetic Acid).
Question 15
Which of the following are the effects produced by Auxin?
  1. Formation of seed
  2. Elongation of stems
  3. Apical dominance
  4. Formation of abscission layer
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 3, 4
C
2, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 15 Explanation: 
Auxins bring about a variety of physiological effects in different parts of the plant body. Auxins promote the elongation of stems and coleoptiles which makes them to grow. Auxins induce root formation at low concentration and inhibit it at higher concentration. The auxins produced by the apical buds suppress growth of lateral buds. This is called apical dominance. Auxins prevent the formation of abscission layer.
Question 16
Which of the following fruit cannot be produced by Parthenocarpy method?
  1. Watermelon
  2. Lime
  3. Grapes
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 16 Explanation: 
Seedless fruits without fertilization are induced by the external application of auxins. (Parthenocarpy). Examples: Watermelon, Grapes, Lime etc.
Question 17
Which of the following are synthetic acetic acid?
  1. Phenyl Acetic Acid
  2. Indole 3 Butyric Acid
  3. α-Naphthalene Acetic Acid
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 17 Explanation: 
Phenyl Acetic Acid (PAA), and Indole 3 Acetonitrile (IAN) are natural auxins. Indole 3 Butyric Acid (IBA), Indole-3- Propionic Acid, α-Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA), 2, 4, 5-T (2,4,5 Tri-chloro-phenoxy Acetic Acid) are some of the synthetic auxins.
Question 18
Which plant hormones that promote cell division?
A
Auxin
B
Renin
C
Cytokinin
D
Pepsin
Question 18 Explanation: 
Cytokinin (Cytos - cell; kinesis - division) are the plant hormones that promote cell division or cytokinesis in plant cells. It was first isolated from Herring fish sperm
Question 19
Zeatin was the cytokinin isolated from______
A
Rice
B
Wheat
C
Zea Mays
D
Coconut
Question 19 Explanation: 
Zeatin was the cytokinin isolated from Zea mays. Cytokinin is found abundantly in coconut milk.
Question 20
Which of the following are the effects of Cytokinin?
  1. Cell division in absence of Auxin
  2. It delays the process of ageing in plants
  3. It promotes the growth of lateral buds even in the presence of apical bud
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 20 Explanation: 
Physiological effects of Cytokinins: Cytokinin induces cell division (cytokinesis) in the presence of auxins. Cytokinin also causes cell enlargement Cytokinin promote the growth of lateral buds even in the presence of apical bud Application of cytokinin delays the process of ageing in plants. This is called Richmond Lang effect.
Question 21
Which of the following hormones in plant are essential for Morphogenesis?
  1. Auxin
  2. Renin
  3. Cytokinin
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 21 Explanation: 
Both auxins and cytokinin are essential for the formation of new organs from the callus in tissue culture (Morphogenesis).
Question 22
Kurosawa (1926) observed Bakanae disease in____ crops
A
Rice
B
Wheat
C
Maize
D
None
Question 22 Explanation: 
Gibberellins are the most abundantly found plant hormones. Kurosawa (1926) observed Bakanae disease or foolish seedling disease in rice crops
Question 23
Internodal elongation in rice was caused by_______
A
Virus
B
Fungus
C
Bacteria
D
All the above
Question 23 Explanation: 
The internodal elongation in rice was caused by fungus Gibberella fujikuroi. The active substance was identified as Gibberellic acid.
Question 24
Application of which of the following stimulate extraordinary elongation of internode?
A
Auxin
B
Cytokinin
C
Renin
D
Gibberellins
Question 24 Explanation: 
Application of gibberellins on plants stimulate extraordinary elongation of internode. e.g.Corn and Pea.
Question 25
Treatment of rosette plants with____ induces sudden shoot elongation
A
Auxin
B
Cytokinin
C
Renin
D
Gibberellins
Question 25 Explanation: 
Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering. This is called bolting.
Question 26
_________ is a growth inhibitor
A
Auxin
B
Cytokinin
C
Abscisic acid
D
Gibberellins
Question 26 Explanation: 
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth inhibitor which regulates abscission and dormancy. It increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress.
Question 27
Which of the following is called as stress hormone?
A
Auxin
B
Cytokinin
C
Abscisic acid
D
Gibberellins
Question 27 Explanation: 
Abscisic Acid is also called as stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants. ABA promotes the process of abscission (separation of leaves, flowers and fruits from the branch). During water stress and drought conditions ABA causes stomatal closure.
Question 28
As the banana continues to ripen, it produces_______ gas
A
Methane
B
Ethylene
C
Methylene
D
Nitrogen
Question 28 Explanation: 
Banana is placed in first bag. Tomato is placed in second bag. As the banana continues to ripen in the first bag, it produces ethylene gas. The gas trapped in the bag will cause tomatoes to ripen. The tomatoes remain unripe in the second bag.
Question 29
Which of the following are the effects of Abscisic acid?
A
Promotes senescence
B
Induces bud dormancy
C
Inhibitor of lateral bud growth
D
All the above
Question 29 Explanation: 
ABA promotes senescence in leaves by causing loss of chlorophyll. ABA induces bud dormancy towards the approach of winter in trees like birch. ABA is a powerful inhibitor of lateral bud growth in tomato.
Question 30
______ is a gaseous plant hormone.
A
Methane
B
Ethylene
C
Methylene
D
Nitrogen
Question 30 Explanation: 
Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone. It is a growth inhibitor. It is mainly concerned with maturation and ripening of fruits.
Question 31
Maximum synthesis of ethylene occurs during ripening of fruits like______
A
Apples
B
Melons
C
Bananas
D
All the above
Question 31 Explanation: 
Maximum synthesis of ethylene occurs during ripening of fruits like apples, bananas and melons.
Question 32
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Endocrine glands in animals possess a versatile communication system to coordinate biological functions
  2. Exocrine glands and endocrine glands are two kinds of glands found in animals.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 32 Explanation: 
Endocrine glands in animals possess a versatile communication system to coordinate biological functions. Exocrine glands and endocrine glands are two kinds of glands found in animals.
Question 33
Which of the following statement is correct about Endocrine gland?
  1. Endocrine glands are found in different regions of the body of animals as well as human beings.
  2. They are ductless glands
  3. Their secretions are called hormones which are produced in minute quantities
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 33 Explanation: 
Endocrine glands are found in different regions of the body of animals as well as human beings. These glands are called ductless glands. Their secretions are called hormones which are produced in minute quantities. They act on specific organs which are referred as target organs.
Question 34
Who is the father of ‘Endocrinology’?
A
Thomas Hardy
B
Thomas Addison
C
E.H. Starling
D
W. M. Bayliss
Question 34 Explanation: 
Th e branch of biology which deals with the study of the endocrine glands and its physiology is known as ‘Endocrinology’. Thomas Addison is known as Father of Endocrinology.
Question 35
Which was the first hormone discovered?
A
Prolactin
B
Vasopressin
C
Secretin
D
GTH
Question 35 Explanation: 
English physiologists W. M. Bayliss and E. H. Starling introduced the term hormone in 1909. They first discovered the hormone secretin.
Question 36
Which of the following is/are exocrine gland?
A
Salivary gland
B
Sweat gland
C
Mammary gland
D
All the above
Question 36 Explanation: 
Exocrine glands have specific ducts to carry their secretions e.g salivary glands, mammary glands, sweat glands.
Question 37
Which of the following is not an Endocrine gland?
A
Pituitary gland
B
Pancreas
C
Gonads
D
Sweat gland
Question 37 Explanation: 
Endocrine glands present in human and other vertebrates are: Pituitary gland Thyroid gland Parathyroid gland Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans) Adrenal gland (Adrenal cortex and Adrenal medulla) Gonads (Testes and Ovary) Thymus gland
Question 38
Pituitary gland is attached to the base of_____
A
Thalamus
B
Hypothalamus
C
Cerebrum
D
Cerebellum
Question 38 Explanation: 
Th e pituitary gland or hypophysis is a pea shaped compact mass of cells located at the base of the midbrain attached to the hypothalamus by a pituitary stalk.
Question 39
How many lobes does pituitary gland have?
A
2
B
4
C
5
D
1
Question 39 Explanation: 
Th e pituitary gland is anatomically composed of two lobes and perform different functions. They are the anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) and the posterior lobe (neurohypophysis). Th e intermediate lobe is non-existent in humans.
Question 40
Which of the following gland is known as master gland?
A
Pineal gland
B
Pancreas
C
Pituitary gland
D
Liver
Question 40 Explanation: 
The pituitary gland forms the major endocrine gland in most vertebrates. It regulates and controls other endocrine glands and so is called as the “Master gland”.
Question 41
Hormones secreted by ____ lobe of pituitary
A
Anterior
B
Posterior
C
Both a and b
D
None
Question 41 Explanation: 
Hormones secreted by the anterior lobe (Adenohypophysis) of pituitary. Pituitary gland are the anterior lobe (adenohypophysis) and the posterior lobe (neurohypophysis). The intermediate lobe is non-existent in humans.
Question 42
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by pituitary gland?
A
Prolactin
B
Growth Hormone
C
Melatonin
D
Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Question 42 Explanation: 
The hormones secreted by anterior pituitary are: Growth Hormone Thyroid stimulating Hormone Adrenocorticotropic Hormone Gonadotropic Hormone which comprises the Follicle Stimulating Hormone and Luteinizing Hormone Prolactin
Question 43
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. The anterior pituitary is composed of different types of cells
  2. They secrete hormones which stimulates the production of hormones by other endocrine glands
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 43 Explanation: 
The anterior pituitary is composed of different types of cells and secrete hormones which stimulates the production of hormones by other endocrine glands.
Question 44
Which of the following organ growth are stimulated by Growth Hormone?
  1. Muscles
  2. Bones
  3. Long bones
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 44 Explanation: 
GH promotes the development and enlargement of all tissues of the body. It stimulates the growth of muscles, cartilage and long bones. It controls the cell metabolism.
Question 45
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Dwarfism is caused by over-secretion of growth hormone
  2. The characteristic features are stunted growth, delayed skeletal formation and mental disability
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 45 Explanation: 
Dwarfism is caused by decreased secretion of growth hormone in children. The characteristic features are stunted growth, delayed skeletal formation and mental disability.
Question 46
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. Over-secretion of growth hormone leads to gigantism in adult
  2. Individuals attain abnormal increase in height.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 46 Explanation: 
Over-secretion of growth hormone leads to gigantism in children. It is characterised by overgrowth of all body tissues and organs. Individuals attain abnormal increase in height.
Question 47
Which causes abnormal enlargement of head, face, hands and feet in adult?
A
Dwarfism
B
Gigantism
C
Acromegaly
D
None
Question 47 Explanation: 
Acromegaly: Excess secretion of growth hormone in adults may lead to abnormal enlargement of head, face, hands and feet.
Question 48
____ controls the growth of thyroid gland
A
GT
B
ACTH
C
TSH
D
GTH
Question 48 Explanation: 
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) controls the growth of thyroid gland, coordinates its activities and hormone secretion.
Question 49
______ stimulates adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland for the production of its hormones
A
GT
B
ACTH
C
TSH
D
GTH
Question 49 Explanation: 
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulates adrenal cortex of the adrenal gland for the production of its hormones. It also influences protein synthesis in the adrenal cortex.
Question 50
____ hormones are follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone.
A
GT
B
ACTH
C
TSH
D
GTH
Question 50 Explanation: 
The gonadotropic hormones are follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone which are essential for the normal development of gonads.
Question 51
_____ stimulates the germinal epithelium of testes for formation of sperms
A
Follicle stimulating hormone
B
Luteinizing hormone
C
Melatonin
D
Oxytocin
Question 51 Explanation: 
In male, Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the germinal epithelium of testes for formation of sperms. In female it initiates the growth of ovarian follicles and its development in ovary.
Question 52
____ causes ovulation in female
A
Follicle stimulating hormone
B
Luteinizing hormone
C
Melatonin
D
Oxytocin
Question 52 Explanation: 
In male, Luteinizing hormone promotes the Leydig cells of the testes to secrete male sex hormone testosterone. In female, it causes ovulation (rupture of mature graafian follicle), responsible for the development of corpus luteum and production of female sex hormones oestrogen and progesterone.
Question 53
_____ is also called lactogenic hormone
A
Follicle stimulating hormone
B
Luteinizing hormone
C
Melatonin
D
Prolactin
Question 53 Explanation: 
Prolactin (PRL) is also called lactogenic hormone. This hormone initiates development of mammary glands during pregnancy and stimulates the production of milk after child birth.
Question 54
_____ is known as a ‘time messenger’.
A
Follicle stimulating hormone
B
Luteinizing hormone
C
Melatonin
D
Prolactin
Question 54 Explanation: 
Melatonin is a hormone produced by the pineal gland. It is known as a ‘time messenger’. It signals night time information throughout the body.
Question 55
Exposure to light of____ at night can decrease melatonin production
A
Short wavelength
B
Long wavelength
C
Medium wavelength
D
All the above
Question 55 Explanation: 
Exposure to light at night, especially short-wavelength light, can decrease melatonin production interrupting sleep. Suppression of melatonin has been implicated in sleep disturbances and related metabolic disorders.
Question 56
Which of the following hormones are produced by posterior lobe (Neurohypophysis) of pituitary?
A
Vasopressin
B
Melatonin
C
Oxytocin
D
Both a and c
Question 56 Explanation: 
Hormones secreted by the posterior lobe (Neurohypophysis) of pituitary: The hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are: Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone Oxytocin
Question 57
_____ increases reabsorption of water in kidney tubules
A
Vasopressin
B
Melatonin
C
Oxytocin
D
Both a and c
Question 57 Explanation: 
In kidney tubules it increases reabsorption of water. It reduces loss of water through urine and hence the name antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin.
Question 58
Deficiency of ADH causes____
A
Diabetes insipidus
B
Diabetes mellitus
C
Both a and b
D
Renal failure
Question 58 Explanation: 
Deficiency of ADH reduces reabsorption of water and causes an increase in urine output (polyuria). This deficiency disorder is called Diabetes insipidus.
Question 59
_____ helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of uterus at the time of child birth
A
Vasopressin
B
Melatonin
C
Oxytocin
D
Both a and c
Question 59 Explanation: 
Oxytocin helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of uterus at the time of child birth and milk ejection from the mammary gland after child birth.
Question 60
Which of the following are involved in thyroid formation?
  1. Iodine
  2. Calcium
  3. Amino acid tyrosine
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 60 Explanation: 
An amino acid tyrosine and iodine are involved in the formation of thyroid hormone. The hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are Triiodothyronine (T3) Tetraiodothyronine or Thyroxine (T4)
Question 61
Which of the following about thyroid hormone is correct?
  1. Increases oxygen consumption in tissues
  2. Influences the activity of central nervous system.
  3. Production of energy by maintaining the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of the body
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 61 Explanation: 
Functions of thyroid hormones: Increases oxygen consumption in tissues Production of energy by maintaining the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of the body. Helps to maintain normal body temperature. Influences the activity of central nervous system. Controls the growth of body, bone formation and development of gonads.
Question 62
Which of the following regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism?
A
Thyroid Gland
B
Thymus gland
C
Adrenal gland
D
Parathyroid gland
Question 62 Explanation: 
The functions of thyroid hormones are: Essential for normal physical, mental and personality development. It is also known as personality hormone. Regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism.
Question 63
Who among the following first crystallised thyroxine hormone?
A
Edward C. Kendal
B
George Barger
C
Charles Harrington
D
Charles Hammlock
Question 63 Explanation: 
Explanation Edward C. Kendal in 1914 first crystallised thyroxine hormone. Charles Harrington and George Barger identified the molecular structure of thyroxine in 1927. Thyroid gland requires “120 µg” of iodine every-day for the production of thyroxine.
Question 64
Which of the following are the abnormal conditions are simple goitre?
  1. Simple goitre
  2. Cretinism
  3. Myxoedema
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 64 Explanation: 
Hypothyroidism is caused due to the decreased secretion of the thyroid hormones. The abnormal conditions are simple goitre, cretinism and myxoedema.
Question 65
In which of the following region of India Goitre is mostly prevalent?
A
Western ghats
B
Eastern ghats
C
Deccan Plateau
D
Himalayan region
Question 65 Explanation: 
Goitre is caused due to the inadequate supply of iodine in our diet. This is commonly prevalent in Himalayan regions due to low level of iodine content in the soil. It leads to the enlargement of thyroid gland which protrudes as a marked swelling in the neck and is called as goitre.
Question 66
Cretinism is caused in____
A
Adults
B
Children
C
Old age people
D
All the above
Question 66 Explanation: 
Cretinism is caused due to decreased secretion of the thyroid hormones in children. The conditions are stunted growth, mental defect, lack of skeletal development and deformed bones. They are called as cretins.
Question 67
Myxoedema is caused in____
A
Adults
B
Children
C
Old age people
D
All the above
Question 67 Explanation: 
Myxoedema is s caused by deficiency of thyroid hormones in adults. They are mentally sluggish, increase in body weight, puffiness of the face and hand, oedematous appearance.
Question 68
Which of the following statement about Hyperthyroidism?
  1. It is caused due to the excess secretion of the thyroid hormones which leads to Grave’s disease
  2. The symptoms are protrusion of the eyeballs, profuse sweating, loss of body weight and nervousness.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 68 Explanation: 
Hyperthyroidism is caused due to the excess secretion of the thyroid hormones which leads to Grave’s disease. The symptoms are protrusion of the eyeballs (Exopthalmia), increased metabolic rate, high body temperature, profuse sweating, loss of body weight and nervousness.
Question 69
In Which surface of thyroid, parathyroid glands are located?
A
Anterior
B
Posterior
C
Dorsal
D
Ventral
Question 69 Explanation: 
The parathyroid glands are four small oval bodies that are situated on the posterior surface of the thyroid lobes. The chief cells of the gland are mainly concerned with secretion of parathormone.
Question 70
Which of the following metabolism are regulated by parathormone?
  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Phosphorous
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 70 Explanation: 
The parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body. They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.
Question 71
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Removal of parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy (removal of thyroid) causes decreased secretion of parathormone
  2. Muscle spasm known as Tetany (sustained contraction of muscles in face, larynx, hands and feet)
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 71 Explanation: 
The secretion of parathyroid hormone can be altered due to the following conditions. Removal of parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy (removal of thyroid) causes decreased secretion of parathormone. The conditions are: Muscle spasm known as Tetany (sustained contraction of muscles in face, larynx, hands and feet). Painful cramps of the limb muscles.
Question 72
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Pancreas is an elongated, yellowish gland situated in the loop of stomach and Ileum
  2. It is exocrine and endocrine in nature
  3. The endocrine portion is made up of Islets of Langerhans.
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 72 Explanation: 
Pancreas is an elongated, yellowish gland situated in the loop of stomach and duodenum. It is exocrine and endocrine in nature. The exocrine pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which plays a role in digestion while, the endocrine portion is made up of Islets of Langerhans.
Question 73
Human insulin was first discovered by____
A
Fredrick Banting
B
Charles Best
C
MacLeod
D
All the above
Question 73 Explanation: 
Human insulin was first discovered by Fredrick Banting, Charles Best and MacLeod in 1921. Insulin was first used in treatment of diabetes on 11th January 1922.
Question 74
The Islets of Langerhans consists of___ types of cells
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
7
Question 74 Explanation: 
The Islets of Langerhans consists of two types of cells namely alpha cells and beta cells. The alpha cells secrete glucagon and beta cells secrete insulin.
Question 75
A balance between____ and____ production is necessary to maintain blood glucose
  1. Insulin
  2. Glucagon
  3. Thyroxine
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 75 Explanation: 
A balance between insulin and glucagon production is necessary to maintain blood glucose concentration.
Question 76
Which of the following statement about Insulin is correct?
  1. It promotes the transport of glucose into the cells.
  2. Insulin helps in the conversion of glucose into glycogen which is stored in Bile
  3. It decreases the concentration of glucose in blood.
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 76 Explanation: 
Insulin helps in the conversion of glucose into glycogen which is stored in liver and skeletal muscles It promotes the transport of glucose into the cells. It decreases the concentration of glucose in blood.
Question 77
_____ helps in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver
A
Insulin
B
Glucagon
C
zona glomerulosa
D
zona fasciculata
Question 77 Explanation: 
Glucagon helps in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver. It increases blood glucose levels.
Question 78
Match the following:
  1. Hyper-glycemia            1. Increase in appetite
  2. Polyuria            2. Frequent urination
  3. Polydipsia            3. Increase in blood sugar level
  4. Polyphagia            4. Increased thirst
A
2, 1, 3, 4
B
4, 1, 2, 3
C
3, 2, 4, 1
D
3, 4, 2, 1
Question 78 Explanation: 
Increase in blood sugar level (Hyper-glycemia). Excretion of excess glucose in the urine (Glycosuria). Frequent urination (Polyuria). Increased thirst (Polydipsia). Increase in appetite (Polyphagia).
Question 79
Which gland also called supra renal glands?
A
Thyroid
B
Pancreas
C
Adrenal
D
Gonads
Question 79 Explanation: 
The adrenal glands are located above each kidney. They are also called supra renal glands. The outer part is the adrenal cortex and the inner part is the adrenal medulla. The two distinct parts are structurally and functionally different.
Question 80
How many layers are there in adrenal cortex?
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
5
Question 80 Explanation: 
The adrenal cortex consists of three layers of cells. They are zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis.
Question 81
The glucocorticoids secreted by______
A
Zona glomerulosa
B
Zona fasciculata
C
Zona reticularis
D
All the above
Question 81 Explanation: 
The glucocorticoids secreted by the zona fasciculata are cortisol and corticosterone They regulate carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism. It stimulates the formation of glucose from glycogen in the liver. It is an anti-inflammatory and anti-allergic agent.
Question 82
The mineralocorticoids secreted by______
A
Zona glomerulosa
B
Zona fasciculata
C
Zona reticularis
D
All the above
Question 82 Explanation: 
The mineralocorticoids secreted by zona glomerulosa is aldosterone It helps to reabsorb sodium ions from the renal tubules. It causes increased excretion of potassium ions. It regulates electrolyte balance, body fluid volume, osmotic pressure and blood pressure
Question 83
_____ hormones of adrenal cortex serve to maintain the body in living condition
A
Cortisol
B
Corticosterone
C
Epinephrine
D
Norepinephrine
Question 83 Explanation: 
The cortisol hormones of adrenal cortex serve to maintain the body in living condition and recover it from the severe effects of stress reactions. Thus, an increased output of cortisol is “life-saving” in “shock conditions”. It is also known as life-saving hormone
Question 84
_______ is composed of chromaffin cells
A
Pancreas
B
Kidney
C
Adrenal Medulla
D
Adrenal Cortex
Question 84 Explanation: 
The adrenal medulla is composed of chromaffin cells. They are richly supplied with sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.
Question 85
Which of the following hormones are called as Emergency hormones?
  1. Glucocorticoids
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Noradrenaline
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 85 Explanation: 
Adrenaline and Noradrenaline are together called as “Emergency hormones”. It is produced during conditions of stress and emotion. Hence it is also referred as “flight, fright and fight hormone”.
Question 86
Which of the following are the functions of Epinephrine?
  1. It promotes the conversion of glycogen to glucose in liver and muscles.
  2. It decreases blood flow through the skin
  3. It increases heart beat and blood pressure.
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 86 Explanation: 
Functions of adrenal medullary hormones: Epinephrine (Adrenaline): It promotes the conversion of glycogen to glucose in liver and muscles. • It increases heart beat and blood pressure. • It increases the rate of respiration by dilation of bronchi and trachea. • It causes dilation of the pupil in eye. • It decreases blood flow through the skin. Norepinephrine (Noradrenalin): Most of its actions are similar to those of epinephrine.
Question 87
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. The sex glands are of two types the testes and the ovaries
  2. The testes are present in male, while the ovaries are present in female.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 87 Explanation: 
The sex glands are of two types the testes and the ovaries. The testes are present in male, while the ovaries are present in female.
Question 88
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Testes are the reproductive glands of the males.
  2. They are composed of seminiferous tubules, Leydig cells and Sertoli cells
  3. They secrete the male sex hormone called progesterone
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 88 Explanation: 
Testes are the reproductive glands of the males. They are composed of seminiferous tubules, Leydig cells and Sertoli cells. Leydig cells form the endocrine part of the testes. They secrete the male sex hormone called testosterone
Question 89
Which of the following are the functions of testosterone?
  1. It influences the process of spermatogenesis.
  2. It stimulates protein synthesis and controls muscular growth.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 89 Explanation: 
Functions of testosterone: It influences the process of spermatogenesis. It stimulates protein synthesis and controls muscular growth. It is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters (distribution of hair on body and face, deep voice pattern, etc).
Question 90
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by Ovary?
A
Estrogen
B
Prolactin
C
Progesterone
D
None
Question 90 Explanation: 
The ovaries are the female gonads located in the pelvic cavity of the abdomen. They secrete the female sex hormones: Estrogen Progesterone Prolactin is secreted by Pituitary gland.
Question 91
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. Estrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary
  2. Progesterone from the corpus luteum that is formed in the ovary
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 91 Explanation: 
Estrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary and progesterone from the corpus luteum that is formed in the ovary from the ruptured follicle during ovulation.
Question 92
Which of the following are the functions of Estrogen?
  1. It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
  2. It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
  3. It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 92 Explanation: 
Functions of estrogens: It brings about the changes that occur during puberty. It initiates the process of oogenesis. It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary. It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters (breast development, high pitched voice etc).
Question 93
Which of the following gland is partly an endocrine gland and partly a lymphoid gland?
A
Thyroid
B
Parathyroid
C
Thymus
D
Testes
Question 93 Explanation: 
Thymus is partly an endocrine gland and partly a lymphoid gland. It is located in the upper part of the chest covering the lower end of trachea. Thymosin is the hormone secreted by thymus.
Question 94
Which of the following are the functions of Thymosin?
  1. It has a stimulatory effect on the immune function
  2. It stimulates the production and differentiation of lymphocytes
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 94 Explanation: 
Functions of Thymosin: It has a stimulatory effect on the immune function. It stimulates the production and differentiation of lymphocytes.
Question 95
Which of the following are the effects of ethylene?
  1. Promotes the ripening of fruits
  2. Inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots
  3. Breaks the dormancy of buds, seeds and storage organs
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 95 Explanation: 
Physiological effects of ethylene: • Ethylene promotes the ripening of fruits. e.g Tomato, Apple, Mango, Banana, etc. • Ethylene inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots. • Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers. • Ethylene stimulates formation of abscission zone in leaves, flowers and fruits. This leads to premature shedding • Ethylene breaks the dormancy of buds, seeds and storage organs.
Question 96
How many lobes does thyroid gland have?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 96 Explanation: 
The thyroid gland is composed of two distinct lobes lying one on either side of the trachea. The two lobes are connected by means of a narrow band of tissue known as the isthmus.
Question 97
Which of the following hormone is not secreted by adrenal medulla?
A
Glucocorticoids
B
Adrenaline
C
Noradrenaline
D
All the above
Question 97 Explanation: 
Hormones of Adrenal Medulla: • Epinephrine (Adrenaline) • Norepinephrine (Noradrenaline)
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Nervous System Online Test 10th Science Lesson 15 Questions in English

Nervous System Online Test 10th Science Lesson 15 Questions in English

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Question 1
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. One of the characteristic features of all living organisms is responding to stimuli
  2. Stimulus refers to the changes in the environmental condition, that are detected by receptors present in the body
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 1 Explanation: 
One of the characteristic features of all living organisms is responding to stimuli. Stimulus refers to the changes in the environmental condition, that are detected by receptors present in the body
Question 2
To which of the following living organism responds to?
  1. Heat
  2. Light
  3. Force of gravity
  4. Smell
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 2, 4
C
2, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 2 Explanation: 
Relevant changes in the activities of organisms to a particular- stimuli are called their reactions or responses. Living organisms show their response to different kinds of stimuli like light, heat, cold, sound, smell, taste, touch, pressure, pain or the force of gravity etc.
Question 3
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. To provide the correct response to a stimulus, it is necessary that all the organs work together in a proper coordinated manner
  2. The working together of various organs in a systematic, controlled and efficient way to produce proper response to various stimuli is called coordination
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 3 Explanation: 
To provide the correct response to a stimulus, it is necessary that all the organs work together in a proper coordinated manner. This working together of various organs in a systematic, controlled and efficient way to produce proper response to various stimuli is called coordination.
Question 4
Cells and organs is essential for their diverse activities to maintain physiological balance called___
A
Homeolysis
B
Homeostasis
C
Homeotherm
D
Homo erectus
Question 4 Explanation: 
In animals including human the coordination between the various cells and organs is essential for their diverse activities to maintain physiological balance called homeostasis.
Question 5
How many distinct components are there in Nervous system?
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
5
Question 5 Explanation: 
The nervous system is made up of nervous tissues. It is formed of three distinct components namely the neurons, neuroglia and nerve fibres.
Question 6
______ is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system
A
Nerve cell
B
Neuroglia
C
Nerve fibre
D
All the above
Question 6 Explanation: 
A neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. Information is conducted through neurons in the form of electrical impulses from one part of the body to another.
Question 7
What is the length of Neuron?
A
100µm
B
10mm
C
1µm
D
20µm
Question 7 Explanation: 
Neuron or nerve cell is the longest cell of the human body with a length of over 100µm. These cells are highly specialised to detect, receive and transmit different kinds of stimuli.
Question 8
______ are also called as glial cells
A
Neuron
B
Neuroglia
C
Nerve fibre
D
All the above
Question 8 Explanation: 
Neuroglia is also called as glial cells. They are non-exciting, supporting cell of the nervous system. They do not initiate or conduct nerve impulses.
Question 9
Which of the following statement about nerve fibre is correct?
  1. The nerve fibres are the long slender processes of neurons
  2. A number of nerve fibres are bundled up together to form nerves
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 9 Explanation: 
The nerve fibres are the long slender processes of neurons. A number of nerve fibres are bundled up together to form nerves.
Question 10
How many basic parts does neurons have?
A
4
B
5
C
2
D
3
Question 10 Explanation: 
A neuron typically consists of three basic parts: Cyton, Dendrites and Axon. A neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system.
Question 11
Which of the following statement about Cyton is correct?
  1. Cyton is also called cell body or perikaryon
  2. It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called neuroplasm.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 11 Explanation: 
Cyton is also called cell body or perikaryon. It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called Neuroplasm.
Question 12
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Neurons have the ability to divide
  2. Several neurofibrils are present in the cytoplasm that help in transmission of nerve impulses to and from the cell body
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 12 Explanation: 
The cytoplasm has large granular body called Nissl’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum. Neurons do not have the ability to divide. Several neurofibrils are present in the cytoplasm that help in transmission of nerve impulses to and from the cell body.
Question 13
_____ conduct nerve impulses towards the cyton
A
Axon
B
Dendrites
C
Glial cells
D
All the above
Question 13 Explanation: 
Dendrites are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses towards the cyton.
Question 14
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection
  2. The end of axon terminates as fine branches which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob
  3. It carries impulses away from the dendron
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 14 Explanation: 
The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection. The end of axon terminates as fine branches which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob. The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton. The axons may be covered by a protective sheath called myelin sheath which is further covered by a layer of Schwann cells called neurilemma.
Question 15
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier
  2. Myelin sheath acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission of nerve impulses
  3. The region between the nodes is called as internode
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 15 Explanation: 
The axons may be covered by a protective sheath called myelin sheath which is further covered by a layer of Schwann cells called neurilemma. Myelin sheath breaks at intervals by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called as internode. Myelin sheath acts as insulator and ensures rapid transmission of nerve impulses.
Question 16
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. A junction between synaptic knob of axon of one neuron and Cyton of next neuron is called synaptic junction
  2. Information from one neuron can pass to another neuron through these junctions with the release of chemicals known as neurotransmitters
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 16 Explanation: 
A junction between synaptic knob of axon of one neuron and dendron of next neuron is called synaptic junction. Information from one neuron can pass to another neuron through these junctions with the release of chemicals known as neurotransmitters from the synaptic knob.
Question 17
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both axon and dendron in Bipolar neuron
  2. The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon in Multipolar neuron
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 17 Explanation: 
Structurally the neurons may be of the following types: Unipolar neurons: Only one nerve process arises from the cyton which acts as both axon and dendron. Bipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes of which one acts as an axon while another as a dendron Multipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon
Question 18
Match the following
  1. Unipolar Neurons           1. Found in cerebral cortex of brain
  2. Bipolar Neurons              2. Found in early embryos only
  3. Multipolar Neurons        3. Found in retina of eye
A
2, 1, 3
B
2, 3, 1
C
3, 1, 2
D
3, 2, 1
Question 18 Explanation: 
Explanation Unipolar Neurons- Found in early embryos but not in adult Bipolar Neurons- Found in retina of eye and olfactory epithelium of nasal chambers Multipolar Neurons- Found in cerebral cortex of brain
Question 19
Match the following
  1. Sensory neurons        1. Impulses from CNS to effector organ
  2. Motor neurons             2. Impulses from the sense organ to the CNS
  3. Association neurons        3. Impulses between sensory and motor neurons
A
2, 1, 3
B
2, 3, 1
C
3, 1, 2
D
3, 2, 1
Question 19 Explanation: 
Sensory or afferent neurons which carry impulses from the sense organ to the central nervous system. Motor or efferent neurons which carry impulses from the central nervous system to effector organ such as the muscle fibre or the gland. Association neurons conduct impulses between sensory and motor neurons.
Question 20
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Nerve fibres are of two types based on the presence or absence of myelin sheath
  2. Myelinated and non-myelinated nerve fibres form the white matter and grey matter of the brain
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 20 Explanation: 
Nerve fibres are of two types based on the presence or absence of myelin sheath. Myelinated and non-myelinated nerve fibres form the white matter and grey matter of the brain.
Question 21
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. In Myelinated nerve fibre, axon is covered with myelin sheath
  2. In Non-myelinated nerve fibre, axon is not covered by myelin sheath
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 21 Explanation: 
Myelinated nerve fibre: The axon is covered with myelin sheath Non-myelinated nerve fibre: The axon is not covered by myelin sheath.
Question 22
Which of the following is not a receptor organ?
A
Skin
B
Eyes
C
Pharynx
D
Nose
Question 22 Explanation: 
All the information from the environment are detected by the receptors located in our sense organs such as the eyes, the nose, the skin, etc.
Question 23
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron
  2. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 23 Explanation: 
Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end. On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neurotransmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.
Question 24
The flow of nerve impulses from axonal end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through_
A
Axon
B
Cyton
C
Dendron
D
Synapse
Question 24 Explanation: 
The flow of nerve impulses from axonal end of one neuron to dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synaptic transmission.
Question 25
Each neuron can transmit____ nerve impulses per second
A
100
B
1000
C
10
D
500
Question 25 Explanation: 
Each neuron can transmit 1000 nerve impulses per second and make as many as ten thousand of synaptic contacts with other neurons.
Question 26
The important neurotransmitter released by neurons is called_____
A
Prolactin
B
Lipase
C
Acetylcholine
D
Chloroquine
Question 26 Explanation: 
Neurotransmitters are the chemicals which allow the transmission of nerve impulse from the axon terminal of one neuron to the dendron of another neuron or to an effector organ. The important neurotransmitter released by neurons is called Acetylcholine.
Question 27
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. The complexity of nervous system can be observed during the course of evolution
  2. We the human beings differ from other animals in our ability to think and take actions, which is due to the well-developed nervous system.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 27 Explanation: 
The complexity of nervous system can be observed during the course of evolution. We the human beings differ from other animals in our ability to think and take actions, which is due to the well-developed nervous system.
Question 28
Human nervous system is differentiated into_____
A
2
B
3
C
5
D
4
Question 28 Explanation: 
Human nervous system is differentiated into three: central nervous system (CNS), peripheral nervous system (PNS) and autonomic nervous system (ANS).
Question 29
______ consists of the brain and the spinal cord
A
CNS
B
ANS
C
PNS
D
All the above
Question 29 Explanation: 
The CNS acts as centre for information processing and control. It consists of the brain and the spinal cord. The PNS is made up of the nerves which connect the brain and spinal cord to all parts of the body. The ANS is formed of sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves.
Question 30
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. The brain and the spinal cord being delicate vital structures are well protected in bony cavities of the skull and the vertebral column respectively
  2. PNS is formed of two types of matter such as white matter or grey matter
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 30 Explanation: 
The brain and the spinal cord being delicate vital structures are well protected in bony cavities of the skull and the vertebral column respectively. CNS is formed of two types of matter such as white matter or grey matter with respect to the presence or absence of myelin sheath which we have discussed earlier.
Question 31
The brain is covered by _____ connective tissue membrane
A
2
B
5
C
3
D
4
Question 31 Explanation: 
The brain is the controlling centre of all the body activities. It is covered by three connective tissue membrane or meninges.
Question 32
Match the following
  1. Duramater                               1. Innermost
  2. Arachnoid membrane        2. Outermost
  3. Piamater                           3. Middle membrane
A
2, 1, 3
B
2, 3, 1
C
3, 1, 2
D
3, 2, 1
Question 32 Explanation: 
Duramater (dura: tough; mater: membrane) is the outermost thick fibrous membrane Arachnoid membrane (arachnoid: spider) is the middle, thin vascular membrane providing web like cushion Piamater (Pia: soft or tender) is the innermost, thin delicate membrane richly supplied with blood.
Question 33
The most common causes of meningitis______
  1. Bacterial
  2. Viral
  3. Fungal
A
1, 2
B
1 alone
C
2 alone
D
All the above
Question 33 Explanation: 
Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges. It can occur when fluid surrounding the meninges becomes infected. The most common causes of meningitis are viral and bacterial infections.
Question 34
A human brain is formed of___ main parts
A
2
B
4
C
3
D
5
Question 34 Explanation: 
Meningeal membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury. A human brain is formed of three main parts: (a) forebrain (b) midbrain and (c) hindbrain.
Question 35
The forebrain is formed of____
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Cerebrum
  3. Pons
  4. Diencephalon
A
2, 3
B
2, 4
C
1, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 35 Explanation: 
The forebrain is formed of cerebrum and diencephalon. The latter consists of dorsal thalamus and ventral hypothalamus.
Question 36
Cerebrum is nearly____ of the brain
A
Two third
B
Three fourth
C
One fourth
D
Two fifth
Question 36 Explanation: 
Cerebrum is the largest portion forming nearly two third of the brain. The cerebrum is longitudinally divided into two halves as right and left cerebral hemispheres by a deep cleft called median cleft.
Question 37
The outer portion of each cerebral hemisphere is formed of____ matter
A
White
B
Grey
C
Both a and b
D
Reddish Brown
Question 37 Explanation: 
Two cerebral hemispheres are interconnected by thick band of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The outer portion of each cerebral hemisphere is formed of grey matter and is called cerebral cortex.
Question 38
The inner or deeper part is formed of_____ matter
A
White
B
Grey
C
Both a and b
D
Reddish Brown
Question 38 Explanation: 
The inner or deeper part is formed of white matter and is called cerebral medulla. The cortex is extremely folded forming elevations called gyri with depressions between them termed as sulci that increase its surface area.
Question 39
Each cerebral hemisphere is divisible into_____ lobes
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 39 Explanation: 
Each cerebral hemisphere is divisible into four lobes: a frontal lobe, a parietal lobe, a temporal lobe and an occipital lobe. These lobes are also known as cerebral lobes and are associated with specific functions. Any damage in specific lobe in-turn affects its function.
Question 40
The cerebrum is responsible for______
  1. Willpower
  2. Memory
  3. Thinking
  4. Imagination
A
2, 3
B
2, 4
C
1, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 40 Explanation: 
The cerebrum is responsible for the thinking, intelligence, consciousness, memory, imagination, reasoning and willpower.
Question 41
_____ is a major conducting centre for sensory and motor signalling
A
Hypothalamus
B
Thalamus
C
Cerebrum
D
Cerebellum
Question 41 Explanation: 
Thalamus present in cerebral medulla is a major conducting centre for sensory and motor signalling. It acts as a relay centre.
Question 42
Which of the following statement about hypothalamus is correct?
  1. It lies at the base of the thalamus
  2. It controls sexual desire
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 42 Explanation: 
Hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus. It controls involuntary functions like hunger, thirst, sleep, sweating, sexual desire, anger, fear, water balance, blood pressure etc.
Question 43
_____ acts as the acts as a thermoregulatory centre of the body
A
Thalamus
B
Hypothalamus
C
Medulla Oblongata
D
Pons
Question 43 Explanation: 
Hypothalamus acts as a thermoregulatory (temperature control) centre of the body. It controls the secretion of hormones from anterior pituitary gland and is an important link between nervous system and endocrine system.
Question 44
Which of the following statement about midbrain is correct?
  1. It is located between thalamus and hind brain.
  2. It controls visual and auditory (hearing) reflexes
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 44 Explanation: 
Midbrain is located between thalamus and hind brain. The dorsal portion of the mid brain consists of four rounded bodies called corpora quadrigemina that control visual and auditory (hearing) reflexes.
Question 45
Hind Brain formed of___ parts
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 45 Explanation: 
A human brain is formed of three main parts: (a) forebrain (b) midbrain and (c) hindbrain. Hindbrain is formed of three parts cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata.
Question 46
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. The human brain constitutes nearly 90 percent of fat
  2. EFAs cannot be synthesised and must be obtained from food.
  3. Fish, green leafy vegetables, almond, walnut are rich sources of EFAs
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 46 Explanation: 
The human brain constitutes nearly 60 percent of fat. The most crucial molecules that determine our brain’s integrity and the ability are Essential Fatty Acids (EFAs). EFAs cannot be synthesised and must be obtained from food. Fish, green leafy vegetables, almond, walnut are rich sources of EFAs.
Question 47
______is second largest part of the brain
A
Cerebrum
B
Cerebellum
C
Pons
D
Medulla Oblongata
Question 47 Explanation: 
Cerebellum is second largest part of the brain formed of two large sized hemispheres and middle vermis. It coordinates voluntary movements and also maintains body balance.
Question 48
Which of the following controls sleep cycle?
A
Cerebrum
B
Cerebellum
C
Pons
D
Medulla Oblongata
Question 48 Explanation: 
‘Pons’ a latin word meaning bridge. It is a bridge of nerve fibre that connects the lobes of cerebellum. It relays signals between the cerebellum, spinal cord, midbrain and cerebrum. It controls respiration and sleep cycle.
Question 49
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Medulla oblongata is the anterior most part of the brain that connects spinal cord and various parts of brain
  2. It also regulates vomiting and salivation.
  3. It has cardiac centres, respiratory centres, vasomotor centres to control heart beat
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 49 Explanation: 
Medulla oblongata is the posterior most part of the brain that connects spinal cord and various parts of brain. It has cardiac centres, respiratory centres, vasomotor centres to control heart-beat, respiration and contractions of blood vessels respectively. It also regulates vomiting and salivation.
Question 50
Match the following
  1. Cerebral cortex        1. Role in sleep-awake cycle
  2. Thalamus               2. Creativity
  3. Cerebellum         3. Acts as relay station
  4. Pons                       4. Maintenance of posture and balance
A
2, 1, 3, 4
B
2, 3, 4, 1
C
1, 3, 2, 4
D
3, 1, 4, 2
Question 51
Which of the following abnormalities can a EEG detect?
  1. Cardiac arrest
  2. Seizure
  3. Epilepsy
  4. Head Injury
A
1, 2, 4
B
2, 3, 4
C
1, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 51 Explanation: 
Electroencephalogram (EEG) is an instrument which records the electrical impulses of brain. An EEG can detect abnormalities in the brain waves and help in diagnoses of seizures, epilepsy, brain tumor, head injuries, etc.
Question 52
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural canal of the vertebral column.
  2. It is also covered by meninges
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 52 Explanation: 
Spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural canal of the vertebral column. It is also covered by meninges.
Question 53
Spinal Cord extends from the lower end of_____
A
Cerebrum
B
Cerebellum
C
Hypothalamus
D
Medulla Oblongata
Question 53 Explanation: 
Spinal cord extends from the lower end of medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. The posterior most region of spinal cord tapers into a thin fibrous thread like structure called filum terminal.
Question 54
The grey matter of spinal cord is___ shaped.
A
L
B
H
C
S
D
O
Question 54 Explanation: 
Internally, the spinal cord contains a cerebrospinal fluid filled cavity known as the central canal. The grey matter of spinal cord is ‘H’ shaped. The upper end of letter ‘H” forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns.
Question 55
Which of the following statement about spinal cord is correct?
  1. A bundle of fibre pass into the posterior horn of Spinal cord forming dorsal or afferent root
  2. The white matter is external and have bundle of nerve tracts.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 55 Explanation: 
The upper end of letter ‘H” forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns. A bundle of fibre pass into the posterior horn forming dorsal or afferent root. Fibres pass outward from the anterior horn forming ventral or efferent root. These two root joins to form spinal nerves. The white matter is external and have bundle of nerve tracts
Question 56
Spinal cord conducts______ impulses to and from the brain.
  1. Motor
  2. Sensory
  3. Optical
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 56 Explanation: 
Spinal cord conducts sensory and motor impulses to and from the brain. It controls reflex actions of the body.
Question 57
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. The brain is suspended in a special fluid environment called cerebrospinal fluid
  2. It is lymph like, watery fluid that surrounds and protects the brain within the skull
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 57 Explanation: 
The brain is suspended in a special fluid environment called cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It is lymph like, watery fluid that surrounds and protects the brain within the skull. It also fills the central canal of the spinal cord.
Question 58
Which of the following are the functions of Cerebrospinal Fluid?
  1. It supplies nutrients from the brain
  2. It is also responsible for maintaining a constant pressure inside the cranium.
  3. It acts as shock absorbing fluid
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D