Planning and Development Politics 12th Political Science Lesson 8 Questions in English

12th Political Science Lesson 8 Questions in English

8] Planning and Development Politics

1. In 1936, who published a book entitled ‘Planned Economy for India’?

1. M.N. Roy
2. M. Visvesvarayya
3. Jayaprakash Naraya
4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

The need for economic planning was realized in India even before independence. In 1936, M.Visvesvarayya published a book entitled ‘Planned Economy for India’.

2. In 1938, the National Planning Committee was initiated within the All India Congress Committee by whom?

1. Mahatma Gandhi
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose
4. M.N. Roy

Explanation

In 1938, the National Planning Committee was initiated within the All India Congress Committee by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose. It had the task of preparing an economic plan for India so that many of the economic problems of the nation could be addressed. The committee could not complete its task due to the outbreak of the world war II and the imprisonment of some of the national leaders.

3. In the book of ‘Planned Economy for India’ published by M. Visvesvrayya he proposed how many years of planning for India?

1. Ten year
2. Five year
3. Seven year
4. Fifteen year

Explanation

In 1936, M.Visvesvarayya published a book entitled ‘Planned Economy for India’ in which he proposed a ten year plan for India. He is considered a pioneer of economic planning in India.

4. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Planning exists in all economies and political systems. A planned system aims at the systematic utilization of the available resources of the state for a long-term progress. It is a process where the state aims to increase its output, national dividend, employment and also enhance the social welfare of the people.
2. In such a system, all productive units in a country use their resources according to the directives of the government which is the central authority for development. It also includes laying down targets for public and private enterprises by the state. The state regulates and controls the functioning of both the private and public enterprises.
3. The modern state assumes welfare functions. Unlike the olden days, when states were “police states” concerned only with the security of the population and law and order, the welfare states have a wider role to play.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

5. In 1944, which Plan was prepared for economic development by Indian industrialists M.N. Roy?

1. Bombay plan
2. Calcutta plan
3. Madras plan
4. Assam plan

Explanation

In 1944, the Bombay Plan was prepared for economic development by Indian industrialists M.N. Roy. He proposed a plan which was called People’s plan which gave more importance to agriculture and small-scale industries.

6. After Independence, the Directive Principles of State Policy were enshrined in which part of the Indian constitution to ensure socio-economic justice for the people?

1. Part III
2. Part IV
3. Part V
4. Part VI

Explanation

After Independence, the Directive Principles of State Policy were enshrined in Part IV of the Indian constitution to ensure socio-economic justice for the people. The constitution makers understood the importance of economic development along with guaranteeing social justice. Thus, planning was considered essential for the long-term development.

7. In 1944, who put forward the Gandhian Plan?

1. Bagha Jatin
2. Shriman Narayan Agarwal
3. Jayaprakash Naraya
4. Ajay Ghosh

Explanation

The Gandhian Plan was put forward by Shriman Narayan Agarwal in 1944.

8. In 1950, who drafted the Sarvodaya plan?

1. Bagha Jatin
2. Somnath Lahiri
3. Jayaprakash Naraya
4. Ajay Ghosh

Explanation

In 1950 Jayaprakash Narayan drafted the Sarvodaya plan. All these plans aimed at improving the economic conditions of the nation.

9. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The Government of India adopted planning as a means of fostering economic development. The Planning Commission was set up with the objective of increasing production so that higher levels of national and per capita income could be achieved.
2. It aimed at guaranteeing employment and narrowing the gap between the rich and the poor. It also aimed at establishing an egalitarian society by giving a wider role to the state so that the goal of socio-economic justice could be guaranteed and economic development could be realised.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

10. The Planning Commission of India was set up in March 1950 by a resolution of the Government of India under the chairmanship of whom?

1. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
2. Rajendra Prasad
3. Vallabhbhai Patel
4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

The Planning Commission of India was set up in March 1950 by a resolution of the Government of India under the chairmanship of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru – the first Prime Minister of India, to prepare a plan for the “most effective and balanced utilization of the country’s resources”.

11. Whose duty was to implement the planning programmes in India?

1. State government
2. Central government
3. Both state and central government
4. Supreme Court

Explanation

The Planning Commission played an advisory role with regard to the formulation of the plans. It was the duty of the Central and state governments to implement the planning programmes.

12. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The Planning Commission had the function of assessing the resources of the nation so that they could be developed for the future needs of the country. These included material, capital and human resources.
2. It was the primary duty of the Commission to prepare the plans so that these resources could be used in an effective and balanced manner. The resources had to be allocated among various sectors as per priorities and the stages of progress and completion of programmes was to be laid down to the Commission.
3. Planning Commission appoints secondary commission to examine the ways by which the plan could be effectively implemented in the prevailing conditions of the nation. It also determined the stage by stage execution of the plan. The Commission had to identify the conditions and issues that would be a hindrance for development.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Planning Commission to examine the ways by which the plan could be effectively implemented in the prevailing conditions of the nation. It also determined the stage by stage execution of the plan. The Commission had to identify the conditions and issues that would be a hindrance for development.

13. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. The planning process had to be assessed periodically so that right strategies could be used to implement the plans. In the process, the Planning Commission had the function of advising the central and state governments with regard to the appropriate strategies of planning.
2. The Commission also had to analyse particular issues and advice on it to the government. It was the role of the Commission to determine the rate of growth of the economy specifying the targets of the plan period for every sector.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

14. Who is the chairman of the Planning Commission enabling the coordination of the functions of the Commission?

1. President
2. Attorney General
3. Prime Minister
4. Vice President

Explanation

The Prime Minister is the chairman of the Planning Commission enabling the coordination of the functions of the Commission.

15. The Planning Commission consisted of the Prime Minister and how many full-time members?

1. Two
2. Four
3. Six
4. Five

Explanation

The Planning Commission consisted of the Prime Minister and four full time members and a few part time members who were of cabinet rank. The full-time members were persons who have excelled in the technical field, economy and administration.

16. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Planning Commission included the Prime Minister as the Chairman who presides over the meetings of the Commission, a deputy chairman who is the de-facto executive head and who has the responsibility of formulating the drafts of the plan to the central cabinet, a secretary, four full time members and some cabinet ministers as part time members.
2. The Home Minister and Planning Minister are ex-officio members of the Commission and a member secretary who is usually a senior legislative officer are also part of the Commission. The functioning of the administration was coordinated by the additional secretary. Senior officers in the ranks of secretaries and undersecretaries had to monitor the progress of the programmes.
3. The Planning Commission of India worked on the principle of collective responsibility. It had three organs namely the General Division, Subject Division and the Administrative Division. The General Division relates to the entire economy and Subject Divisions concerns with specific areas of development like food and agriculture, power and irrigation, transportation etc.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Finance Minister and Planning Minister are ex-officio members of the Commission and a member secretary who is usually a senior IAS officer are also part of the Commission. The functioning of the administration was coordinated by the additional secretary. Senior officers in the ranks of deputy secretaries and undersecretaries had to monitor the progress of the programmes.

17. During which plan the National Planning Council was constituted?

1. Second plan
2. Fourth plan
3. Second plan
4. Sixth plan

Explanation

The National Planning Council was constituted during the Fourth Plan in 1965. It consisted of experts in science, engineering and economics and worked on areas that include agriculture, land reforms, irrigation, education, employment, industry, trade, management, family planning, social welfare, natural resources, transport and international trade.

18. Which among the following included all the Chief Ministers of the States along with the Prime Minister as its chairman?

1. National Development Council
2. National Administrative Council
3. National Productive Council
4. National Constructive Council

Explanation

The National Development Council included all the Chief Ministers of the States along with the Prime Minister as its chairman. The inclusion of the states enables the implementation of the plans in the respective states. Some cabinet ministers of the central government could also be present during the deliberations of the NDC. The NDC had the role of reviewing the implementation of the plans periodically and discusses various issues relating to the development of the state.

19. Which among the following statement is correct

1. One of the major problems of India was poverty. The Planning Commission aimed not only at increasing the per capita income but also improving the quality of life of the people. Growth of the economy necessitated the inclusion of all sectors. It was also understood that the quality of life of the common man was interrelated to his economic conditions.
2. It was realised by the state that it was important to guarantee people a decent standard of living along with proper access to education and health care which are next to food, clothing and shelter.
3. But the challenge was that economic growth and reduction of poverty are always related. From the sixth five-year plan, the government focussed on this issue and concentrated on ‘garibi hatao’ during the early1980’s.
4. Only 1
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

But the challenge was that economic growth and reduction of poverty are not always related. From the fourth five-year plan, the government focussed on this issue and concentrated on ‘garibi hatao’ during the early1970’s.

20. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Employment generation was considered to be one of the measures for reduction of poverty. There were many problems due to unemployment and underemployment. In all the five-year plans emphasis was given to employment.
2. Article 38(2) states “The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations”.
3. Ensuring social justice has gone hand in hand with economic planning. Along with measures for development, it is also important to give equal opportunities to all with regard to education and employment. The establishment of a socialistic pattern of society ensured that there will be no concentration of wealth in the hands of a few so that exploitation and oppression could be ended.
4. Only 3
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 38(2) states “The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavour to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities, not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people residing in different areas or engaged in different vocations”.

21. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Historically, the Indian society has fostered exploitation and suppression of one section by another. It was a challenge to the constitution makers to tackle all these traditional forces and social evils so that social and economic justice could be realized.
2. The non-justiciable rights under Part IV on Directive Principles of State Policy ensures that the system functions in such a way that the inequalities of income among people is reduced and an egalitarian society is established.
3. The justiciable rights under Part V of the constitution dealing with Fundamental rights enables the citizens to get protection for all the rights required to live a complete life.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The justiciable rights under Part III of the constitution dealing with Fundamental rights enables the citizens to get protection for all the rights required to live a complete life.

22. Who was the architect of planning in India?

1. M.N. Roy
2. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
3. Rajendra Prasad
4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru was the architect of planning in India. He was inspired by the soviet model of planning and was also inspired by the liberal principles of capitalism. He wanted to bring the two ideas together in India which was termed as democratic socialism.

23. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The rural urban divide was another important area where the Planning Commission had to concentrate. In the process of economic development, industrialization and urbanization increased and this had its impact on the Indian society and economy.
2. Disparity in the development of the rural and urban population would foster inequality which is against the principle enshrined in the constitution. The Planning Commission recommended many programmes for the development of the rural economy so that the development of both the rural and urban population could be ensured.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

24. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The idea of a mixed economy was thus adopted which included the liberal policy of encouraging private enterprises and also promoting the public sector for the good of the society by socializing the means of production and giving powers to the state to have control over the economy.
2. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1963 was adopted by the Indian Parliament in April 1963. It was a guideline for the economic policy of the country. The five-year plans were made on the basis of this resolution. It emphasised on solo power to the governmental machinery so that a socialistic pattern of society could be realized.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 was adopted by the Indian Parliament in April 1956. It was a guideline for the economic policy of the country. The five-year plans were made on the basis of this resolution. It emphasised on more powers to the governmental machinery so that a socialistic pattern of society could be realized.

25. In the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, the industries were divided into how categories?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

In the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, the industries were divided into three categories. Firstly, there were industries which were entirely state owned. Secondly the category of industries which were state owned but the public enterprises could also be included and thirdly industries which were with the private sector and the third category of industries could not function only for self-interest or profit motives but were regulated for the interest of the entire society.

26. After the introduction of economic reforms in 1991 by the Congress government led by which Prime Minister?

1. P.V. Narasimha Rao
2. Chandra Shekhar
3. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
4. V.P. Singh

Explanation

After the introduction of economic reforms in 1991 by the Congress government led by Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao, a new industrial policy was announced in July 1991 which aimed at taking steps to reduce bureaucratic control over the Indian industrial economy and liberalization so that the Indian economy could be integrated with the world economy.

27. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Planning was considered to be a prerequisite for a mixed economy. As the benefits of the public sector and the private sectors were to be integrated for the welfare of the community, the Five Years Plans were formulated in such a manner that the objectives of economic growth and social justice could be achieved.
2. Freedom on direct foreign investment was removed. The reforms in the industrial policy was reflected in areas such as industrial delicensing, foreign investment, foreign technology policy and private sector policy.
3. The seventh Five-year plan got completed in 1990. Due to the economic condition of the country, the eighth five-year plan could not be introduced in 1990. In the years 1990-91 and 1991-92 annual plans were formulated.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Restrictions on direct foreign investment was removed. The reforms in the industrial policy was reflected in areas such as industrial licensing, foreign investment, foreign technology policy and public sector policy.

28. In 2015, the Government of India introduced a new Commission called ____

1. NITI Aayog
2. NABARD
3. AYUSH
4. DRDO

Explanation

In 2015, the Government of India made a shift in its approach towards planning. It introduced a new planning Commission called the NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) which replaced the Planning Commission. It was formed with the idea of making the entire planning process more decentralized.

29. Which among the following statement is correct

1. NITI Aayog aims at cooperative federalism where the states can play a wider role. It also focuses on need specific plans making the entire process inclusive so that all sections of the population could be a part of the developmental process.
2. The NITI Aayog functions as a think tank of the government. It has the function of providing the central government and the state governments with relevant and strategic technical advice relating to policy making.
3. NITI Aayog advices on all issues of state and international importance and analyses on the best practices from our own country not from other nations of the world. The Government issued a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1st September, 2015 by which the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

NITI Aayog advices on all issues of national and international importance and analyses on the best practices from our own country and from other nations of the world. The Government issued a resolution of the Union Cabinet on 1st January, 2015 by which the Planning Commission was replaced by the NITI Aayog.

30. Who is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog?

1. President
2. Attorney General
3. Prime Minister
4. Vice President

Explanation

The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog. He appoints a Vice-Chairman. There are 5 full time and 2 part time members. It has a Governing Council which consists of the Chief Ministers of all the states and Lt. Governors of Union Territories.

31. Which among the following statement is correct regarding NITI Aayog

1. The Regional Councils are formed to address specific issues relating to the states or a region. It functions for a specific period of time. The Prime Minister has the power to invite experts, specialists and practitioners on particular domains as special invitees.
2. The full-time members are from leading universities and research organizations. Two members of the Union Council of Ministers are also nominated as ex-officio members. It also comprises of a Chief Executive officer (CEO).
3. The plurality and diversity of the Indian state was recognized by the government. The nature of each of the States and Union Territories is different. The needs of the people are different, the geographical condition of each of the regions vary and the economic conditions are different.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The part time members are from leading universities and research organizations. Four members of the Union Council of Ministers are also nominated as ex-officio members. It also comprises of a Chief Executive officer (CEO).

32. Which among the following objective of NITI Aayog is correct

1. To include the States in the planning process so that the Central government along with the State governments could identify developmental priorities and strategies. This would foster cooperative federalism as the states would be a part of the planning process. To formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate it progressively.
2. To ensure that the interests of national security are incorporated in economic strategy and necessary checks on indiscriminate tampering with ecology and environment policy and to check whether all sections of the population are benefitted from economic progress.
3. Long term policy and programme frameworks to be designed and their progress would be monitored by the Aayog and innovative improvements would be made. Partnership between key stakeholders, like-minded think tanks, educational and policy research institutions to be encouraged and knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system to be created through a community of national and international experts.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

33. Which among the following objective of NITI Aayog is correct

1. The NITI Aayog also emphasises on technology upgradation and capacity building for implementation of programmes and initiatives. To undertake other activities that are necessary to further the execution of the national development agenda.
2. Some of the initiatives of the NITI Aayog include “10 years road map”, 10 years vision, Aayog Mission for Rural and Urban Transformation (AMRUT), Digital India, Atal Innovation Mission etc. The Commission also offers platform for resolution of intra-sectoral and intra-departmental issues so that the developmental programmes can be accelerated.
3. The NITI Aayog signed the Sustainable Development Framework for 2018-2022. The commitment of the government in attaining the sustainable development goals is reflected by this. The areas that are focussed are poverty and urbanization, health, water and sanitation, education, job creation, gender equality, youth development.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Some of the initiatives of the NITI Aayog include “15 years road map”, 7 years vision, Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT), Digital India, Atal Innovation Mission etc. The Commission also offers platform for resolution of inter-sectoral and inter-departmental issues so that the developmental programmes can be accelerated.

34. When the Planning Commission was set up by a resolution of the Government of India?

1. 1950
2. 1952
3. 1954
4. 1959

Explanation

The Planning Commission was set up by a resolution of the Government of India in 15th March 1950. It has been replaced by the National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog. It was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015.

35. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Land Reform in India

1. Land has been always considered as the most important element of Wealth. It is also used to not only to produce wealth in the form of Agricultural Products such as rice, wheat, etc., but also used as an instrument to control the tenants and labour.
2. Despite efforts taken by the British Government during the Colonial Era such as Permanent Settlement Act, Land Regulation Acts, the friction between the land lords, tenants and labourers continued even after Independence. As it became very complicated after India’s Independence, a series of measures have been taken to settle and prevent the problems between land lords and tenants, tillers and labourers.
3. At the time of independence, ownership of land was concentrated in the hands of a many. This led to the exploitation of the landless farmers and labourers and socio-economic inequality in the urban life. In the eve of independence, peasant riots broke out in many parts (Odisha, Jharkhand and Madurai Districts in Tamil Nadu) of India.
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

At the time of independence, ownership of land was concentrated in the hands of a few. This led to the exploitation of the landless farmers and labourers and socio-economic inequality in the rural life. In the eve of independence, peasant riots broke out in many parts (Telangana, Travancore and Tanjore Districts in Tamil Nadu) of India.

36. Vinobha Bhave launched which Movement in which the landlords were to voluntarily transfer their surplus lands, and the government would help with necessary legislations?

1. Chipko Movement
2. Sarvodaya Movement
3. Boodhan Movement
4. Kisan Movement

Explanation

Vinobha Bhave launched Boodhan Movement in which the landlords were to voluntarily transfer their surplus lands, and the government would help with necessary legislations.

37. Which Movement, attempted to launch and strength co-operative societies to assist the poor farmers?

1. Chipko Movement
2. Sarvodaya Movement
3. Boodhan Movement
4. Kisan Movement

Explanation

The distribution of lands was made among the landless poor. The Sarvodaya Movement, attempted to launch and strength co-operative societies to assist the poor farmers.

38. In Tamil Nadu, who among the following strived hard to make the Boodhan and Sarvodaya Movement popular among the rural people?

1. Nammalwar and Rajveer
2. Krishnamurthy and Muthamma
3. Yoganathan and Jayaram
4. Jagannathan and Krishnammal

Explanation

In Tamil Nadu, Jagannathan and Krishnammal strived hard to make the Boodhan and Sarvodaya Movement popular among the rural people. Equal distribution of land was therefore an area of focus of Independent India’s government. Laws for land ceiling were enacted in various states during the 1950s & 1960s and also from initiatives taken by the Federal Government.

39. The land reform can be classified into how many categories?

1. Two
2. Four
3. Six
4. Three

Explanation

The Land reform can be classified into four categories. They are 1. Abolition of Intermediaries 2. Land Ceiling 3. Tenant Regulation 4. Co-operative Farming.

40. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Land Reforms in India

1. The first category was the enactment of laws related to tenancy reforms. These include attempts to regulate tenancy contracts both via registration and stipulation of contractual terms, such as share in tenancy contracts, as well as attempts to abolish tenancy and transfer ownership to tenants.
2. The second category of land reform acts attempts to abolish Land lords. These Land lords who worked under feudal lords (Zamindari) to collect rent for the British were reputed to allow a small share of the surplus from the land to be extracted from tenants. Most states had passed legislation to abolish intermediaries prior to 1949.
3. The third category of land reform acts concerned efforts to implement ceilings on land holdings, with a view to redistributing surplus land to the landless. Finally, the reform acts which attempted to allow consolidation of disparate land holdings. These reforms justified partly in terms of achieving efficiency in agriculture, it is clear from the acts themselves and from the political manifestos supporting the acts.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The second category of land reform acts attempts to abolish intermediaries. These intermediaries who worked under feudal lords (Zamindari) to collect rent for the British were reputed to allow a larger share of the surplus from the land to be extracted from tenants. Most states had passed legislation to abolish intermediaries prior to 1958.

41. Which among the following term was used for middlemen between cultivators and government?

1. Jagirdars
2. Mundars
3. Konnars
4. Bindhars

Explanation

One of the first aims of the agrarian reforms was to eliminate the middlemen such as the Zamindars and Jagirdars so as to bring the cultivator into direct relationship with the govt.

42. Which among the following state is the temporary settled areas where work of Zamindari abolition was comparatively easy?

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Punjab
4. Kerala

Explanation

The work of Zamindari abolition was comparatively easy in the temporarily settled areas such as Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh where adequate records and administrative machinery existed.

43. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. In order to achieve equality in possession and utilization of land, legislations were passed in few states imposing ceiling on existing land holdings as well as on future acquisition of land. However, provisions relating to level, transfers, and exemptions are same from state to state.
2. In Assam, Jammu and Kashmir, West Bengal and Manipur, there was one uniform ceiling limit irrespective of the class of land, ceiling being fixed at 50 acres, 22 ¾ acres and 25 acres respectively. But due to differences in uniformity among states, land celling became a political issue and was not properly implemented.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In order to achieve equality in possession and utilization of land, legislations were passed in all states imposing ceiling on existing land holdings as well as on future acquisition of land. However, provisions relating to level, transfers, and exemptions differed considerably from state to state.

44. Which year Tanjore Pannaiyaal Protection Act was introduced?

1. 1944
2. 1949
3. 1952
4. 1954

Explanation

At the time of independence, the feudal Serfdom system was followed in then undivided Tanjore area. Small tenant peasants and Agri-worker severely suffered by this brutal system. To safeguard small tenants and Agri – workers, the Pannaiyaal Paathukaappu Sattam (Tanjore Pannaiyaal Protection Act 1952) was implemented.

45. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Third attempt was to bring uniformity and regulation of agrarian labour and tenancy. With the guidelines provided by the Planning Commission, the State govts. adopted certain measures, viz., regulation of rents, security of tenure and conferment of ownership on tenants.
2. Consequently, governments in the Centre and States have formulated agrarian policy aimed at reducing disparities in wealth and income, eliminating exploitation, providing security for the tenant and worker, and opportunity to different sections of the rural population.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

46. When the Land ceiling act was enacted?

1. 1954
2. 1961
3. 1956
4. 1951

Explanation

Land Ceiling Act, 1961 was also enacted and updated subsequently for the needs of time. By this act, the surplus lands were taken from the landlords who possessed the land more than permissible level. These lands were distributed to landless peasants and Agri – workers.

47. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The fourth attempt was Co-operative farming where farmers take the land from land lord permanent and pool the resources to make a collective attempt to farm and the profit will be equally divided after settling the rent and expenses.
2. Until late 1960’s, a total of 7294 cooperative farming societies having a membership of 1.88 lakhs had been formed and these covered an area of 3.93 lakh hectares. However, many of these societies were defunct and some existed only on paper for the sake of obtaining state grants though their land was cultivated in the old way.
3. In these, there was neither the pooling of resources nor joint operation of land. A number of these were formed with a desire to evade land reforms measures in various states.
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

The fourth attempt was Co-operative farming where farmers take the land for lease and pool the resources to make a collective attempt to farm and the profit will be equally divided after settling the rent and expenses.

48. Which among the following statement is correct

1. On the basis of Indian Union Co -operative Act, 1914, the Madras State Co-operative Act, was enacted. This act was further strengthened after independence. The Co-operative organizations functions in two ways such as Co-operative Banks and Co-operative Societies.
2. Co-operative organizations functioning in Tamil Nadu, apart from Agriculture, includes various hand craft industries like Cotton weaving, silk weaving and pottery. Tamil Nadu currently has more than 10, 000 Co-operative Societies.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

On the basis of Indian Union Co -operative Act, 1904, the Madras State Co-operative Act, was enacted. This act was further strengthened after independence. The Co-operative organizations functions in three ways such as Co-operative Banks, Land Development Banks, Co-operative Societies.

49. The Land Bill creates how many special categories of land use?

1. Five
2. Seven
3. Six
4. Two

Explanation

The Bill creates five special categories of land use: 1. defence, 2. rural infrastructure, 3. affordable housing, 4. industrial corridors, and 5. infrastructure projects including Public Private Partnership (PPP) projects where the central government owns the land.

50. Which among the following statement regarding Land Bill is correct

1. The Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement (Amendment) Bill, 2015 seeks to Amend the Act of 2013 (LARR Act, 2013). The Bill brings provisions for compensation, rehabilitation, and resettlement under other related Acts such as the National Highways Act and the Railways Act in consonance with the LARR Act.
2. The Bill changes acquisition of land for public sector companies mentioned in LARR Act, 2013 to acquisition for public entities. A public entity could include companies, corporations and Non-profit organisations.
3. The Bill allows exemption for projects in these five categories from requiring Social Impact Assessment be done to identify those affected and from the restrictions on the acquisition of irrigated multi-cropped land imposed by LARR Act 2013.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Bill changes acquisition of land for private companies mentioned in LARR Act, 2013 to acquisition for ‘private entities. A private entity could include companies, corporations and Non-profit organisations.

51. The Bill exempts the five categories from provisions of the LARR Act, 2013 which requires the consent of how many per cent of land owners to be obtained for private projects?

1. 60%
2. 70%
3. 50%
4. 80%

Explanation

The Bill exempts the five categories from provisions of the LARR Act, 2013 which requires the consent of 80 per cent of land owners to be obtained for private projects and that of 70 per cent of land owners for PPP projects.

52. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Agriculture has been the most intensive form of economic activity leading to 12-15% of its contribution to GDP. Agriculture is not only for sustaining the food grains and vegetation to cater to the requirements of the growing population but has its contribution in creating largest employment sector, fostering one large section of the Indian industry called Agrarian Industry and earning foreign exchange to our nation.
2. The primary need to sustain Indian agriculture to cater the growing requirements of the population was felt even before Independence. However, the nature of importance that was given to Agriculture varied from the First Five Year plan to 8^th Five Year Plan. Because in the initial years after independence, the importance was given to setting of Political and Financial system in India.
3. In the first 10 years after Independence, with the continuous adoption of primitive technology of farming the agricultural outcome was able to meet the basic needs of the population that was growing around 2.5% annually. It was during the 1960’s when India began to face the shortfall in meeting the population needs. This led to the Green Revolution.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The primary need to sustain Indian agriculture to cater the growing requirements of the population was felt immediately after Independence. However, the nature of importance that was given to Agriculture varied from the First Five Year plan to 12th Five Year Plan. Because in the initial years after independence, the importance was given to setting of industry and industrial system in India.

53. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Indian agricultural shortfall after first two five-year plans?

1. India was only able to produce required grains to suit the growing population. Insufficiency in production due to the technological agricultural practice which was primitive in use of traditional.
2. The pattern of agriculture was not only very primitive but farmers relied on long term crop patterns which took long time to see the results.
3. Since India is a monsoon dependent state the agricultural output was dependent on the nature of rainfall, insufficient rain fall resulted in drought which affected the grain production in India leading to famine, starvation and deaths.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

India was not able to produce required grains to suit the growing population. Insufficiency in production due to the traditional agricultural practice which was primitive in use of technology.

54. Which among the following statement is correct

1. During 1970’s a New Agriculture Policy was formulated on the basis of suggestions given by the TATA Foundation. In its report ‘India’s Crisis of Food and Steps to Meet it’ the TATA Foundation’s agricultural experts suggested certain reforms. The Government of India introduced the reforms in agriculture.
2. These reforms were adopted as a collective programme in order to bring existing and new irrigation facilities, application of fertilizers, hybrid seeds that can bring high yield, pesticides, insecticides etc. This new way was gradually adopted in Indian agriculture. This was called GREEN REVOLUTION.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

During 1960’s a New Agriculture Policy was formulated on the basis of suggestions given by the Ford Foundation. In its report ‘India’s Crisis of Food and Steps to Meet it’ the Ford Foundation’s agricultural experts suggested certain reforms. The Government of India introduced the reforms in agriculture.

55. Which Indian agriculture scientist formulated the plan for Green Revolution?

1. Verghese Kurien
2. Chidambaram Subramaniam
3. C.N.R. Rao
4. M.S. Swaminathan

Explanation

The plan for Green Revolution was formulated by the notable Indian agriculture scientist Dr M.S. Swaminathan who was later known as Father of India’s Green Revolution. In simple terms, the increased use of fertilizers and irrigation are known collectively as the Indian Green Revolution.

56. The Green Revolution took place between which years resulted in 50% increase in agricultural production?

1. 1967 – 78
2. 1981 – 92
3. 1970 – 81
4. 1978 – 89

Explanation

The Green Revolution took place between 1967-78 which resulted in 50% increase in agricultural production. In the initial stage, this programme was implemented around 2 million hectares of area. Gradually the coverage of the programme was enlarged and total area covered by this Green Revolution programme was estimated as 70 million hectares which accounted to 40% of the agricultural cover.

57. Which among the following statement is correct

1. In 1960, nine districts in seven states were selected by the Indian Government for a pilot project known as Indian Area Development Programme (IADP). As the results were far more satisfactory, the reform programme was extended to other States.
2. Hence, this programme was extended to remaining states and one district from each state was selected for intensive development. Subsequently it was extended to 144 districts in 1965. Consequently, farming activities began to take throughout the year, that is, from single cropping pattern to multiples of cropping and mixed cropping, which meant not just the cultivation of wheat or rice alone as in the traditional farming pattern.
3. Due to the geo climate variations in different parts of India, farmers in India adopted different types of cropping pattern. Northern States of India like Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh quickly found better results with regard to wheat, while Southern states like Karnataka, Tamil Nadu etc found lesser rate of success in regard to cultivation of rice.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In 1960, seven districts in seven states were selected by the Indian Government for a pilot project known as Intensive Area Development Programme (IADP). As the results were far more satisfactory, the reform programme was extended to other States.

58. India imported grains from which country during the PL-140 programme in 1950’s?

1. USA
2. USSR
3. China
4. UK

Explanation

Volume of agricultural outcome increased by two to three-fold compared to the period in 1950’s. The increased production of rice, wheat, cereals and vegetables had erased the humiliation that India had to import grains from the United States during the PL-140 programme in 1950’s. Moreover, the agricultural goods were freely available to the people in the open market.

59. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Green Revolution

1. Due to intensive cropping throughout the year, the demand for agricultural employment decreased. The demand was felt in three groups namely, unskilled agrarian labour to work in the farm, skilled agrarian labours to start technical farming and qualified agricultural engineers and experts to help and facilitate the knowledge regarding scientific farming
2. The Green Revolution in India not only brought a change in agricultural activity, but also brought a healthy relationship between market and industry. As the scientific farming was more dependent on agricultural engineering such as farm equipment’s, tractors etc., industries began to show interest to produce farm equipment’s to suit the increasing demand at low cost
3. One of the major problems faced by the states in India was that the Green Revolution was beneficial only to those states where the soil was fertile. Hence, states that produced in excess distributed their output to other states which were climatically dry such as Vidarbha and Telangana. Hence, inter-state agrarian market began to grow to cater the needs of the consumption.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Due to intensive cropping throughout the year, the demand for agricultural employment increased. The demand was felt in two groups namely, unskilled agrarian labour to work in the farm and qualified agricultural engineers and experts to help and facilitate the knowledge regarding scientific farming.

60. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Green Revolution

1. Farmers holding very small pieces of land had to compete with the large land holders with regard to finance, infrastructure and agrarian market forces. This led to marginalization of farmers and they were disinterested towards new techniques in farming. Hence, there was variations among farmers and also variation in various regions across India
2. Green Revolution brought majority of farming community in India together both for their personal and national socioeconomic welfare. This led to substantial increase in income status of the farming community as the high yield of food grain led high income.
3. Agricultural market also played crucial role in creating competitive pricing which helped the farming community to sell their goods in the open market. Hence, the whole farming community in India took part in the Green Revolution. Unlike industrialization, agriculture showed very short-term profit and growth. Hence, it articulated the revolutionary feeling among the agrarian community to actively participate in the Green Revolution.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

61. The Government of India adopted the method and process followed by Gujarat’s AMUL (Anand Milk Union Limited) founded by whom?

1. Verghese Kurien
2. Chidambaram Subramaniam
3. C.N.R. Rao
4. M.S. Swaminathan

Explanation

The Government of India adopted the method and process followed by Gujarat’s AMUL (Anand Milk Union Limited) founded by Verghese Kurien. AMUL had a humble beginning in 1950’s in Gujarat with less than 200 farms. Milk was collected from these farms and it was supplied to the consumers in Mumbai.

62. When the Tamil Nadu Dairy Development Corporation Limited was formed?

1. 1956
2. 1972
3. 1963
4. 1978

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu Dairy Development Corporation Limited was formed in 1972 to manage the activities such as milk procurement, processing and marketing of the milk and milk products. Based on Dr Kurien pattern, Tamil Nadu Cooperative Milk Producers’ Federation (TCMPF) was formed in 1981.

63. In 1966, which Prime Minister inaugurated Operation Flood with NDDB headed by Mr. Verghese Kurien?

1. Indira Gandhi
2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
3. Morarji Desai
4. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

In 1960’s AMUL became a very well-established dairy society in India. In 1966, Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri inaugurated Operation Flood with NDDB headed by Mr. Verghese Kurien. Verghese Kurien became the architect of the programme and gave professional help in bringing this White Revolution in 1970’s.

64. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Objectives of the Operation Flood?

1. To increase milk production (“a flood of milk”). To increase rural incomes of dairy sheds. To provide fair prices for consumers.
2. To reduce the import burden on the national exchequer. To establish a National Milk Grid. To meet nutrients needs.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

65. The White Revolution or Operation Flood programme was implemented in how many phases?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Six
4. Four

Explanation

The White Revolution or Operation Flood programme was implemented in three phases.

66. Which among the following statement is correct

1. In the first phase (1975-80), 18 of the country’s main milk sheds were connected to the consumers of the three major cities namely Mumbai, Calcutta and Madras. The total cost of this phase was Rs.116 crores.
2. In the second phase (1981–85), the milk sheds were increased from 18 to 136 and the city market points increased to 290 for urban distribution of milk. By the end of 1985, more than 43,000 self-sustaining village cooperatives with 42.5 lakh milk producers were covered. Domestic milk powder production increased from 22,000 tons in the pre-project year to 140,000 tons by 1989.
3. In the third phase (1985–96), the dairy cooperatives were enabled to expand and strengthen the required facilities to procure and market increasing volumes of milk. Veterinary medical care, cattle nutrition and artificial insemination services for cooperative members were expanded along with intensified dairy farm education. It went with adding 30,000 new dairy cooperatives to the 42,000 existing societies organized during Phase II.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In the first phase (1970-79), 18 of the country’s main milk sheds were connected to the consumers of the four major cities namely Mumbai, Delhi, Calcutta and Madras. The total cost of this phase was Rs.116 crores.

67. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The phenomenal growth of milk production in India – from 20 million metric tons to 100 million MT with in a span of 40 years was made possible only because of the dairy cooperative movement. This has propelled India to emerge as the largest milk producing country in the World today.
2. The dairy cooperative movement facilitated the Indian dairy farmers to take interest in cows and buffaloes which has resulted in the 500 million cattle population in the country which is the largest in the world. It not only achieved self-sufficiency but also increased the production infant milk powder very considerably.
3. The dairy cooperative movement has spread across the length and breadth of the country, covering more than 12,000 villages of 108 districts in 28 states. The movement has been successful because of a well-developed network of procurement and distribution system with the support of National, State and Village governance.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The dairy cooperative movement has spread across the length and breadth of the country, covering more than 125,000 villages of 180 districts in 22 states. The movement has been successful because of a well-developed network of procurement and distribution system with the support of National, State and Village governance.

68. Which among the following statement regarding Industrialization is correct

1. Industrialization has been one of the most significant processes in the Indian economic development since independence. After independence, the leaders understood the importance of industrialization for our country.
2. They initiated the process of industrialization under the Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 and in all the five-year plans industrialization was given due importance. The initiatives of the governments led to a considerable increase in industrial production making India the sixth most industrial country in the world.
3. Though there is the progress in industrialization a change in foreign trade of India could not be seen. India increased the imports of engineering goods. Correspondingly, there was less development of technological and managerial skills as the industries had to be operated and also planning and designing of the industries had to be done in an efficient manner.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Due to the progress in industrialization a change in foreign trade of India could be seen. India increased the export of engineering goods. Correspondingly, there was development of technological and managerial skills as the industries had to be operated and also planning and designing of the industries had to be done in an efficient manner.

69. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Industrialization

1. Heavy industries were developed and high technical capability also had to be developed in terms of improved infrastructure, advanced technology and appropriate production equipment’s. The engineering industry was the key to the industrial development of India. It had to be developed as per the strategy of the planners to accelerate industrialisation in India.
2. During the planning process, there was development of basic and capital goods industries. The productive capital of these industries increased from 50 percent in 1959 to 79 percent in 1990-91. This showed an increase in employment. The number of workers in factories and mines increased tremendously. New capital goods industries were started and developed.
3. During this period, there was a huge expansion of infrastructural facilities in the country. The petrochemical industries developed with efficient refineries, pipelines, storage and distribution systems. These were drastic changes in the economy with improved irrigation system, storage works and canals, hydro and thermal power generation, improved railway system and well laid national and state highways.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

70. In which date World Milk Day is celebrated on each year?

1. August 1
2. September 1
3. June 1
4. November 1

Explanation

While the World Milk Day is celebrated on June 1 each year, National Milk Day is celebrated on November 26th. This day marks the birth anniversary of Verghese Kurien, the Father of White Revolution in India.

71. Who is considered to be a pioneer in economic planning in India was a chief civil engineer, scholar, statesman, politician and the 19th Diwan of Mysore, who served from 1912 to 1919?

1. E. Sreedharan
2. M. Visvesvaraya
3. C.N. Rao
4. G.D. Naidu

Explanation

Sir Visvesvaraya who is considered to be a pioneer in economic planning in India was a chief civil engineer, scholar, statesman, politician and the 19th Diwan of Mysore, who served from 1912 to 1919. He received India’s highest honour, the Bharat Ratna, in 1955.

72. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Industrialization

1. With the introduction of economic reforms in India, there were changes in the industrial pattern of India. There was slower and steady growth of capital goods and consumer goods and there was a rise in the rate of growth of basic industries. Tremendous changes happened in the field of science and technology as well.
2. The growth in banking, insurance and commerce and also the expansion and modernization of ports, shipping and both domestic and international air services have all been due to these economic changes which led to enlargement in industries.
3. An effective industrial policy is essential for any industrialised nation. It enables the state to have proper policies, rules and regulations so that the industries can be regulated and the process of industrialization benefits the economy and the society
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

With the introduction of economic reforms in India, there were changes in the industrial pattern of India. There was faster growth of capital goods and consumer goods and there was a slowdown in the rate of growth of basic industries. Tremendous changes happened in the field of science and technology as well.

73. Which among the following statement is correct

1. As the Indian system incorporated the concept of a mixed economy, the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted in 1948 emphasised on the public sector that would function in their respective spheres. All the key industries were to be under the control of the state government.
2. The public sector had control over arms and ammunitions, the production and control of atomic energy, railways etc. which were to be the exclusive monopoly of the central government. The state also had control over coal, iron and steel, aircraft manufacturing, ship building etc. Private enterprises and the cooperatives managed the remaining industries.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

As the Indian system incorporated the concept of a mixed economy, the Industrial Policy Resolution adopted in 1948 emphasised that both the public sector and private sectors would function in their respective spheres. All the key industries were to be under the control of the central government.

74. In which year new industrial policy was formed that classified Industries specified into three categories?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Six
4. Four

Explanation

A new industrial policy was formulated and was adopted in April 1956. As per this policy, three categories of industries were specified. There were industries which were totally controlled by the state, industries which were owned by the state and the private enterprises which could supplement in the management of such industries and the third category of industries were those which were exclusively managed by the private enterprises.

75. Which among the following statement is correct

1. An industrial policy was announced by the Janata government in July 1980. It stressed on a pragmatic approach towards development acknowledging the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948. It emphasised on a classified industrial development with setting up of numerous plants in industrially backward regions.
2. Small scale units and cottage industries were to be started which could function more effectively using improved technology. It aimed at promoting a concept of economic federalism.
3. The industrial policy of 1980 made considerable changes by bringing about a liberalised licensing policy by which the large undertakings were much benefitted as they were made free from the MRTP Act and FERA. The government delicensed industries which were located in the areas that were declared as backward.
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

An industrial policy was announced by the congress government in July 1980. It stressed on a pragmatic approach towards development acknowledging the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956. It emphasised on a integrated industrial development with setting up of nucleus plants in industrially backward regions.

76. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. A new industrial policy was introduced by the Rajiv Gandhi government in July 1991. This was a landmark in the economic history of the nation because the government had introduced its policy of liberalization.
2. The Act from centralized bureaucratic control. The conditions of public enterprises were re-examined as they showed very less rate of growth. So, entrepreneurs were freed from restriction of MRTP Act and restrictions on direct foreign investment was removed. The Indian economy was integrated with the world economy through this policy of liberalization.
3. Major reforms were introduced in the areas of industrial licensing, foreign investment, foreign technology, public sector policy and MRTP Act. Changes were made with regard to industrial licencing which was abolished for many industries. As per the new Act,18 industries were included for compulsory licensing.
4. Only 1
5. only 3
6. Both 1 and 3
7. None

Explanation

A new industrial policy was introduced by the P.V. Narasimha Rao government in July 1991. This was a landmark in the economic history of the nation because the government had introduced its policy of liberalization.

77. In 1993, how many more industries were removed from the list of 18 industries under the compulsory licensing?

1. Two
2. Four
3. Three
4. Six

Explanation

In 1993, three more industries were removed from the list of 18 industries under the compulsory licensing. They were motor cars, white goods (which include refrigerators, washing machines, air conditioners etc.) and raw hides and skins and patent leather.

78. Which schemes were introduced with the help of the BIFR so that the public enterprises whose performance was poor could be improved?

1. Rehabilitation scheme
2. Projection scheme
3. Speculation scheme
4. Infeudation scheme

Explanation

Rehabilitation schemes were introduced with the help of the Board for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) so that the public enterprises whose performance was poor could be improved. During such a rehabilitation process, the interest of the workers of such industries was to be protected.

79. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP),1969 was repealed by which ministry?

1. Ministry of Home Affairs
2. Ministry of Finance
3. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
4. Ministry of Defence

Explanation

The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP),1969 was repealed by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and this was replaced by the Competition Act,2002 which was later amended in 2007 and 2009.

80. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The MRTP Act had the objective of encouraging the concentration of money and checking unfair practices in trade so that monopolistic practices could be stopped. But the new Act prevents freedom of trade so that there was effective competition and the consumer could get the best products
2. Emphasis was given to regulating the activities of the companies. The companies did not have to get the prior approval of the government in making changes in their establishments. In spite of many efforts towards industrialization, there are also few inadequacies. India still has the problem of unemployment and underemployment.
3. The industrialization process leads to the development of large sectors but the small and medium sectors still have a long way to go. More and more industries are concentrated in cities. In terms of development there is a vast difference between the urban areas and the rural areas. Issues relating to urbanization and migration are bigger challenges to the state.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The MRTP Act had the objective of preventing the concentration of money and checking unfair practices in trade so that monopolistic practices could be stopped. But the new Act encouraged freedom of trade so that there was healthy competition and the consumer could get the best products.

81. Which is the committee appointed by the government of India for giving recommendations for reviewing the public administrative system of India?

1. Administrative Development Commission
2. Administrative Reforms Commission
3. Administrative Structural Commission
4. Administrative Co-operative Commission

Explanation

Administrative Reforms Commission is the committee appointed by the government of India for giving recommendations for reviewing the public administrative system of India.

82. Which is measures the average income earned per person in a given area in a specified year?

1. Gross Domestic Product
2. Gross National Income
3. Gross National Product
4. Per Capita Income

Explanation

Per Capita income measures the average income earned per person in a given area in a specified year. It is calculated by dividing the area’s total income by its total population.

83. Which is a monetary measure of the market value of all the final goods and services produced in a period of time which is often calculated annually?

1. Gross Domestic Product
2. Gross National Income
3. Gross National Product
4. Per Capita Income

Explanation

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a monetary measure of the market value of all the final goods and services produced in a period of time which is often calculated annually.

84. Which Finance Minister is regarded as the Father of New Economic Policy of India?

1. Morarji Desai
2. Manmohan Singh
3. R. Venkataraman
4. V.P. Singh

Explanation

New Economic Policy was introduced in India on July 24, 1991 under Prime Ministership of P.V.  Narasimha Rao, Dr Manmohan Singh the Finance Minister is regarded as the Father of New Economic Policy of India.