Indian Economy Online Test 11th Economics Lesson 1 Questions in English

Indian Economy-11th Economics Lesson 1 Questions in English-Online Test

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Question 1
What is the total monetary value of the goods and services produced by that country over a specific period of time, usually one year?
A
GDP
B
GNP
C
HDI
D
GNHI
Question 1 Explanation: 
A country’s economic growth is usually measured by National Income, indicated by Gross Domestic Product (GDP). The GDP is the total monetary value of the goods and services produced by that country over a specific period of time, usually one year.
Question 2
Which of the following are indicators of quality of life?
  1. GDP
  2. HDI
  3. PQLI
  4. GNHI
A
1, 2, 3
B
2, 3, 4
C
1, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 2 Explanation: 
The level economic development is indicated not just by GDP, but by an increase in citizens’ quality of life or well-being. The quality of life is being assessed by several indices such as Human Development Index (HDI), Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) and Gross National Happiness Index (GNHI).
Question 3
When was the term Gross National Happiness coined?
A
1972
B
1982
C
1992
D
2001
Question 3 Explanation: 
The term “Gross National Happiness” was coined by the fourth king of Bhutan, Jigme Singye Wangchuck, in 1972. It is an indicator of progress, which measures sustainable development, environmental conservation promotion of culture and good governance.
Question 4
Which of the following is an odd one among the following?
A
USA
B
France
C
Myanmar
D
Canada
Question 4 Explanation: 
Developed economies are those countries which are industrialised, utilise their resources efficiently and have high per capita income. The USA, Canada, U.K, France, and Japan are some of the developed economies. Developed economies are also termed as Advanced Countries. On the other hand, countries which have not fully utilized their resources like land, mines, workers, etc., and have low per capita income are termed as under developed economies. Examples of underdeveloped countries are Sub Saharan Africa, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Pakistan, Indonesia etc. They are also termed as Undeveloped Countries or Backward Nations or Third World Nations.
Question 5
In what position India stands in economy of the world?
A
2nd
B
3rd
C
7th
D
6th
Question 5 Explanation: 
Indian economy is the Seventh largest economy of the world. Being one of the top listed countries. In terms of industrialization and economic growth, India holds a robust position with an average growth rate of 7% (approximately). Even though the rate of growth has been sustainable and comparatively stable, there are still signs of backwardness.
Question 6
Which of the following are features of Developed nation?
  1. High Standard of Living
  2. Political Stability and Good Governance
  3. High Consumption Level
  4. Dominance of Industrial Sector
A
1, 2, 3
B
2, 3, 4
C
1, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 7
  • Assertion(A): Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy
  • Reason(R): Variety of Cultures present in India so it is called as Mixed Economy
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are wrong
C
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D
(A) is Correct and (R) is wrong
Question 7 Explanation: 
Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy. This means both private and public sectors co-exist and function smoothly. On one side, some of the fundamental and heavy industrial units are being operated under the public sector, while, due to the liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance. This makes it a perfect model for public – private partnership.
Question 8
What percentage people in India depend on agriculture for their livelihood?
A
49
B
71
C
60
D
54
Question 8 Explanation: 
Agriculture being the maximum pursued occupation in India, it plays an important role in its economy as well. Around 60% of the people in India depend upon agriculture for their livelihood.
Question 9
What percentage of GDP is contributed by the agricultural sector?  
A
60
B
17
C
29
D
35
Question 9 Explanation: 
In fact, about 17% of our GDP today is contributed by the agricultural sector. Green revolution, ever green revolution and inventions in bio technology have made agriculture self-sufficient and also surplus production. The export of agricultural products such as fruits, vegetables, spices, vegetable oils, tobacco, animal skin, etc. also add to forex earning through international trading.
Question 10
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. India has emerged as vibrant economy sustaining stable GDP growth rate even in the midst of global downtrend
  2. India has a high potential for prospective growth.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 10 Explanation: 
India has emerged as vibrant economy sustaining stable GDP growth rate even in the midst of global downtrend. This has attracted significant foreign capital through FDI and FII. India has a high potential for prospective growth. This also makes it an emerging market for the world.
Question 11
Which of the following country is not in G20?
A
India
B
Russia
C
France
D
Pakistan
Question 12
India stands in which position in terms of PPP?
A
2nd
B
1st
C
3rd
D
7th
Question 12 Explanation: 
Emerging as a top economic giant among the world economy, India bags the seventh position in terms of nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and third in terms of Purchasing Power Parity (PPP). As a result of rapid economic growth Indian economy has a place among the G20 countries.
Question 13
In the year 2016-17, what was the economic growth rate of India?
A
7.1%
B
6.1%
C
7.7%
D
5.1%
Question 13 Explanation: 
India’s economy is well known for high and sustained growth. It has emerged as the world’s fastest growing economy in the year 2016-17 with the growth rate of 7.1% in GDP next to People’s Republic of China.
Question 14
Which sector contributes a lion’s share of the GDP in India?
A
Agricultural sector
B
Service sector
C
Secondary sector
D
Quinary sector
Question 14 Explanation: 
The service sector, contributes a lion’s share of the GDP in India. There has been a high-rise growth in the technical sectors like Information Technology, BPO etc. These sectors have contributed to the growth of the economy. These emerging service sectors have helped the country go global and helped in spreading its branches around the world.
Question 15
  • Assertion(A): The standard of living has considerably improved and life style has
Changed
  • Reason(R): With the faster growth rate in the economy the standard of living has
improved a lot.
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are wrong
C
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D
(A) is Correct and (R) is wrong
Question 15 Explanation: 
With the faster growth rate in the economy the standard of living has improved a lot. This in turn has resulted in rapid increase in domestic consumption in the country. The standard of living has considerably improved and life style has changed.
Question 16
Which of the following speed up the pace of urbanisation?
  1. Transport
  2. Health
  3. Education
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 16 Explanation: 
Urbanization is a key ingredient of the growth of any economy. There has been a rapid growth of urban areas in India after independence. Improved connectivity in transport and communication, education and health have speeded up the pace of urbanization.
Question 17
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. The Indian economy has been projected and considered as one of the most stable economies of the world
  2. According to the Economic Survey for the year 2014-15, 8%-plus GDP growth rate has been predicted, with actual growth turning out to be a little less (7.6%)
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 17 Explanation: 
The Indian economy has been projected and considered as one of the most stable economies of the world. The current year’s Economic survey represents the Indian economy to be a “heaven of macroeconomic stability, resilience and optimism. According to the Economic Survey for the year 2014-15, 8%-plus GDP growth rate has been predicted, with actual growth turning out to be a little less (7.6%). This is a clear indication of a stable macroeconomic growth.
Question 18
  • Assertion(A): Human capital plays a key role in maximizing the growth prospects in the Country
  • Reason(R): The human capital of India is young.
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are wrong
C
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D
(A) is Correct and (R) is wrong
Question 18 Explanation: 
The human capital of India is young. This means that India is a pride owner of the maximum percentage of youth. The young population is not only motivated but skilled and trained enough to maximize the growth. Thus, human capital plays a key role in maximizing the growth prospects in the country. Also, this has invited foreign investments to the country and outsourcing opportunities too.
Question 19
What is the population growth rate in India as______ per 1000.
A
1.9
B
1.7
C
2.7
D
1.0
Question 19 Explanation: 
India stands second in terms of size of population next to China and our country is likely to overtake china in near future. Population growth rate of India is very high and this is always a hurdle to growth rate. The population growth rate in India is as high as 1.7 per 1000.The annual addition of population equals the total population of Australia.
Question 20
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. The proportion of income and assets owned by top 10% of Indians goes on increasing
  2. There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy
  3. As a result of unequal distribution of the rich becomes richer and poor becomes poorer
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 20 Explanation: 
There exists a huge economic disparity in the Indian economy. The proportion of income and assets owned by top 10% of Indians goes on increasing. This has led to an increase in the poverty level in the society and still a higher percentage of individuals are living Below Poverty Line (BPL). As a result of unequal distribution of the rich becomes richer and poor becomes poorer.
Question 21
Which of the following are used as demographic trends in India?
A
Size of population
B
Rate of growth
C
Life-expectancy at birth
D
All the above
Question 21 Explanation: 
Scientific study of the characteristics of population is known as Demography. The various aspects of demographic trends in India are: Size of population, Rate of growth, Birth and death rates, Density of population, Sex-ratio, Life-expectancy at birth, Literacy ratio
Question 22
In which of the following year population growth rate went negative?
A
1901
B
1911
C
1941
D
1921
Question 23
What percentage of population India contributes out of world population?
A
25
B
17.5
C
12.2
D
19.9
Question 23 Explanation: 
Over a period of 100 years, India has quadrupled its population size. In terms of, size of population, India ranks 2nd in the world after China. India has only about 2.4% of the world’s geographical area and contributes less than 1.2% of the world’s income, but accommodates about 17.5% of the world’s population.
Question 24
Which of the following two Indian states population exceeds Population of USA?
  1. Kerala
  2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Assam
A
1, 4
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 24 Explanation: 
In other words, every 6th person in the world is an Indian. In-fact, the combined population of just two states namely, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra are more than the population of United States of America, the third most populous country of the world. Some of the states in India have larger population than many countries in the world.
Question 25
Match the following correctly
  1. Year of Great Divide                                1. 1951
  2. Year of Small divide                                2. 1961
  3. Year of Population Explosion                3. 1921
A
2, 1, 3
B
3, 1, 2
C
3, 2, 1
D
1, 3, 2
Question 25 Explanation: 
The negative growth during 1911-21 was due to rapid and frequent occurrence of epidemics like cholera, plague and influenza and also famines. The year 1921 is known as the ‘Year of Great Divide’ for India’s population as population starts increasing. During 1951, population growth rate has come down from 1.33% to 1.25%. Hence it is known as ‘Year of Small divide’. In 1961, population of India started increasing at the rate of 1.96% i.e, 2%. Hence 1961 is known as ‘Year of Population Explosion’.
Question 26
In which year population of India crossed one billion mark?
A
2011
B
2001
C
1991
D
1981
Question 26 Explanation: 
In the year 2001, the Population of India crossed one billion (100 crore) mark. The 2011 census reveals growth of youth population which is described as ‘demographic transition’.
Question 27
What does Crude Death rate mean?
A
number of deaths per thousand of population
B
number of deaths per year
C
number of deaths per hundred of population
D
number of deaths per ten of population
Question 27 Explanation: 
Crude Birth rate: It refers to the number of births per thousand of population. Crude Death rate: It refers to the number of deaths per thousand of population
Question 28
Match the following year with Crude Birth rate:
  1. 1951                      1) 21.8
  2. 2001                     2) 39.9
  3. 2011                      3) 25.4
A
2, 3, 1
B
2, 1, 3
C
3, 1, 2
D
3, 2, 1
Question 29
Match the following
  1. lowest birth rate                  1. Orissa
  2. lowest death rate                 2. Uttar Pradesh
  3. highest death rate               3. West Bengal
  4. highest birth rate                4. Kerala
A
4, 1, 3, 2
B
3, 1, 2, 4
C
4, 3, 1, 2
D
2, 1, 3, 4
Question 29 Explanation: 
Kerala has the lowest birth rate (14.7) and Uttar Pradesh has the highest birth rate (29.5). West Bengal has the lowest death rate (6.3) and Orissa (9.2) has the highest. Among States Bihar has the highest decadal (2001-11) growth rate of population, while Kerala has the lowest growth rate.
Question 30
Which of the following states have very high population?
  1. Bihar
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. West Bengal
  4. Uttar Pradesh
  5. Rajasthan
A
1, 2, 3, 5
B
2, 3, 4, 5
C
1, 2, 4, 5
D
1, 3, 4, 5
Question 30 Explanation: 
The four states Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh called BIMARU states have very high population.
Question 31
Which of the following gives Population density correctly?
A
Total population/ Land area of the region
B
Land area of the region/ Total population
C
Total population/ Death rate
D
Death rate/ Total population
Question 31 Explanation: 
It refers to the average number of persons residing per square kilometre. It represents the man- land ratio. As the total land area remains the same, an increase in population causes density of population to rise. Density of population = Total population/ Land area of the region
Question 32
Match the following years with Density of population
  1. 1951                      1. 325
  2. 2001                      2. 382
  3. 2011                      3. 117
A
3, 1, 2
B
3, 2, 1
C
2, 1, 3
D
2, 3, 1
Question 33
Which state is most densely populated state in India?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Bihar
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
West Bengal
Question 33 Explanation: 
Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh have density higher than the India’s average density. Bihar is the most densely populated state in the country with 1,102 persons living per sq.km followed by West Bengal with 880.
Question 34
What is the population density of Arunachal Pradesh?
A
170
B
17
C
27
D
100
Question 34 Explanation: 
Just before Independence, the density of population was less than 100. But after independence, it has increased rapidly from 117 in 1951 to 325 in 2001. According to 2011 census, the present Density of population is 382. Arunachal Pradesh has low density of population of only 17 persons.
Question 35
Sex ratio refers to______
A
number of females per 1,000 males
B
number of males per 1,000 females
C
number of females per 1,000 of the total population
D
number of females per 1,000 of the total population
Question 35 Explanation: 
Sex ratio refers to the number of females per 1,000 males. It is an important indicator to measure the extent of prevailing equity between males and females at a given point of time.
Question 36
According to 2011 census, which state has lowest sex ratio?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Haryana
C
Punjab
D
Rajasthan
Question 36 Explanation: 
In India, the sex ratio is more favourable to males than to females. In Kerala, the adult sex ratio is 1084 as in 2011. The recent census (2011) shows that there has been a marginal increase in sex ratio. Haryana has the lowest sex ratio of 877 (2011) among other states, while Kerala provides better status to women as compared to other States with 1084 females per 1000 males.
Question 37
Match the following year with the respective sex ratio:
  1. 1951                       1. 946
  2. 2001                      2. 940
  3. 2011                       3. 933
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 3, 2
C
2, 3, 1
D
3, 2, 1
Question 38
Which of the following two are indirectly proportional?
  1. Life expectancy
  2. Sex ratio
  3. death rate
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
None
Question 38 Explanation: 
Life expectancy at birth refers to the mean expectation of life at birth. Life expectancy has improved over the years. Life expectancy is low when death rate is high and / or instances of early death are high. On the other hand, life expectancy is high when death rate is low and / or instances of early death are low.
Question 39
Match the following years with overall life expectancy:
  1. 1951                       1. 58.7
  2. 1991                       2. 32.1
  3. 2001                      3. 63.5
  4. 2011                       4. 62.5
A
3, 1, 2, 4
B
2, 1, 3, 4
C
2, 1, 4, 3
D
4, 1, 3, 2
Question 40
What was the life expectancy of Indians during 1901 – 11:
A
59.1
B
23
C
35.5
D
66.1
Question 40 Explanation: 
During 1901 – 11, life expectancy was just 23 years. It increased to 63.5 years in 2011. A considerable fall in death rate is responsible for improvement in the life expectancy at birth. However, the life expectancy in India is very low compared to that of developed countries.
Question 41
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Literacy ratio refers to the number of literates as a percentage of the total population
  2. In 1951, only one-fourth of the males and one-third of the females were literates.
  3. When compared to other developed countries and even Sri Lanka the literacy rate of India is very low.
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 41 Explanation: 
Literacy ratio refers to the number of literates as a percentage of the total population. In 1951, only one-fourth of the males and one-twelfth of the females were literates. Thus, on an average, only one-sixth of the people of the country were literates. In 2011, 82% of males and 65.5% of females were literates giving an overall literacy rate of 74.04% (2011). When compared to other developed countries and even Sri Lanka this rate is very low.
Question 42
Match the states with their respective literacy rate:
  1. Kerala                                   1.  53%
  2. Bihar                                     2.  75%
  3. Maharashtra                       3.  74%
  4. Tamil Nadu                         4.  92%
A
4, 1, 3, 2
B
4, 1, 2, 3
C
3, 1, 2, 4
D
2, 1, 3, 4
Question 42 Explanation: 
Kerala has the highest literacy ratio (92%) followed by Goa (82%), Himachal Pradesh (76%), Maharashtra (75%) and Tamil Nadu (74%). Bihar has the lowest literacy ratio (53%) in 2011.
Question 43
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Any stock or reserve that can be drawn from nature is a Natural Resource
  2. The major natural resources are - land, forest, water, mineral and energy
  3. India is rich in natural resources, but majority of the Indians are poor.
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 43 Explanation: 
Any stock or reserve that can be drawn from nature is a Natural Resource. The major natural resources are - land, forest, water, mineral and energy. India is rich in natural resources, but majority of the Indians are poor. Nature has provided with diverse climate, several rivers for irrigation and power generation, rich minerals, rich forest and diverse soil.
Question 44
Which of the following is a Non-Renewable Resource?
A
Biomass
B
Wildlife
C
Minerals
D
Forests
Question 44 Explanation: 
Types of Natural resources Renewable Resources: Resources that can be regenerated in a given span of time. E.g. forests, wildlife, wind, biomass, tidal, hydro energies etc. Non-Renewable Resources: Resources that cannot be regenerated. E.g. Fossil fuels, coal, petroleum, minerals, etc.
Question 45
In terms of area India stands in which position?
A
6th
B
3rd
C
7th
D
10th
Question 45 Explanation: 
In terms of area India ranks seventh in the world with a total area of 32.8 lakh sq. km. It accounts for 2.42% of total area of the world. In absolute terms India is really a big country. However, land- man ratio is not favourable because of the huge population size. According to Agricultural Census, the area operated by large holdings (10 hectares and above) has declined and area operated under marginal holdings (less than one hectare) has increased. This indicates that land is being fragmented and become in-economic
Question 46
What was the forest cover of India in the year 2007? (in million hectare)
A
69.09
B
8.35
C
31.90
D
28.84
Question 46 Explanation: 
India’s forest cover in 2007 is 69.09 million hectare which constitutes 21.02 per cent of the total geographical area. Of this, 8.35 million Hectare is very dense forest, 31.90 million Hectare is moderately dense forest and the rest 28.84 million hectare is open forest.
Question 47
In which of the following states Hematite iron is obtained?
  1. Chattisgarh
  2. Goa
  3. Kerala
  4. Jharkhand
A
1, 4
B
1, 2, 4
C
1, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 47 Explanation: 
India possesses high quality iron-ore in abundance. The total reserves of iron-ore in the country are about 14.630 million tonnes of haematite and 10,619 million tonnes of magnetite. Hematite iron is mainly found in Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, Goa and Karnataka. The major deposit of magnetite iron is available at western coast of Karnataka. Some deposits of iron ore are also found in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
Question 48
In which position India stands in Coal production?
A
7th
B
3rd
C
2nd
D
1st
Question 48 Explanation: 
Coal is the largest available mineral resource. India ranks third in the world after China and USA in coal production. The main centres of coal in India are the West Bengal, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Bulk of the coal production comes from Bengal-Jharkhand coalfields.
Question 49
Bauxite is the main ore of_____
A
Copper
B
Aluminium
C
Zinc
D
Iron
Question 49 Explanation: 
Bauxite is a main source of metal like aluminium. Major reserves are concentrated in the East Coast bauxite deposits of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
Question 50
Which country stands 1st in Mica production?
A
China
B
India
C
Bangladesh
D
USA
Question 50 Explanation: 
Mica is a heat resisting mineral which is also a bad conductor of electricity. It is used in electrical equipment as an insulator. India stands first in sheet mica production and contributes 60% of mica trade in the world. The important mica bearing pegmatite is found in Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar and Rajasthan.
Question 51
Digboi, Badarpur, Naharkatia are important places of oil exploration in India. In which state they are located?
A
Meghalaya
B
Assam
C
Manipur
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 51 Explanation: 
Oil is being explored in India at many places of Assam and Gujarat. Digboi, Badarpur, Naharkatia, Kasimpur, Palliaria, Rudrapur, Shivsagar, Mourn(All in Assam) and Hay of Khambhat, Ankaleshwar and Kalol (All in Gujarat) are the important places of oil exploration in India.
Question 52
Hutti Goldfield is found in which state?
A
Meghalaya
B
Karnataka
C
Manipur
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 52 Explanation: 
India possesses only a limited gold reserve. There are only three main gold mine regions—Kolar Goldfield, Kolar district and Hutti Goldfield in Raichur district (both in Karnataka) and Ramgiri Goldfield in Anantpur district (Andhra Pradesh).
Question 53
Match the following Kimberlile fields with their state:
  1. Raipur                                            1. Chhattisgarh
  2. Nuapada                                        2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Raichur-Gulbarga                       3. Karnataka
  4. Narayanpet – Maddur               4. Odisha
A
2, 1, 3, 4
B
4, 1, 2, 3
C
1, 4, 3, 2
D
1, 4, 2, 3
Question 53 Explanation: 
The new Kimberlile fields have been discovered in Raipur and Pastar districts of Chhattisgarh, Nuapada and Bargarh districts of Odisha, Narayanpet – Maddur Krishna areas of Andhra Pradesh and Raichur-Gulbarga districts of Karnataka.
Question 54
Which of the following are included in Social infrastructure?
  1. Transport
  2. Education
  3. Training and research
  4. Irrigation
A
1, 2
B
2, 3
C
1, 4
D
All the above
Question 54 Explanation: 
Infrastructural development means the development of many support facilities. These facilities may be divided into (a) economic infrastructure and (b) social infrastructure. Social infrastructure includes - education, training and research, health, housing and civic amenities.
Question 55
Which of the following are economic infrastructure of an economy?
  1. Railways
  2. power plants
  3. insurance companies
A
1, 2
B
2, 3
C
1, 4
D
All the above
Question 55 Explanation: 
Economic infrastructure includes - transport, communication, energy, irrigation, monetary and financial institutions. Economic infrastructure is the support system which helps in facilitating production and distribution. For instance, railways, trucks, posts and telegraph offices, ports, canals, power plants, banks, insurance companies etc. are all economic infrastructure of an economy. They help in the production of goods and services.
Question 56
In which position Indian Railways stands in the world?
A
3rd
B
4th
C
1st
D
5th
Question 56 Explanation: 
In terms of railroads, India has a broad network of railroad lines, the largest in Asia and the fourth largest in the world. The total rail route length is about 63,000 km and of this 13,000 km is electrified.
Question 57
Which of the following statement is correct?
  • For the sustained economic growth of a country, a well-connected and efficient transport system is needed
  • The total length of roads in India being over 2 lakh km, India has one of the largest road networks in the world.
  • India has a good network of rail, road, coastal shipping, and air transport.
A
1, 3
B
2, 3
C
1, 4
D
All the above
Question 57 Explanation: 
For the sustained economic growth of a country, a well-connected and efficient transport system is needed. India has a good network of rail, road, coastal shipping, and air transport. The total length of roads in India being over 30 lakh km, India has one of the largest road networks in the world.
Question 58
Which of the following ports handle 90% of sea- borne trade?
  1. Goa
  2. Mumbai
  3. Cuddalore
  4. Chennai
A
1, 2, 3
B
2, 3, 4
C
1, 2, 4
D
1, 3, 4
Question 58 Explanation: 
The major Indian ports including Calcutta, Mumbai, Chennai, Vishakhapatnam and Goa handle about 90% of sea- borne trade and are visited by cargo carriers and passenger liners from all parts of the world.
Question 59
In which railway station Indian railways provided Wi-Fi Facility First?
A
New Delhi
B
Chennai
C
Bangalore
D
Lucknow
Question 59 Explanation: 
Indian Railways Provide Wi-Fi Facility for the First time in India is Bangalore Railway Station.
Question 60
When does Air India and Indian Airlines were merged?
A
August 27, 2007
B
August 27, 2017
C
August 27, 2000
D
August 27, 2012
Question 60 Explanation: 
A comprehensive network of air routes connects the major cities and towns of the country. The domestic air services are being looked after by Indian Airlines and private airlines. The international airport service is looked after by Air India. Air India and Indian Airlines were merged on August 27, 2007 to from National Aviation Company of India Ltd. (NACIL).
Question 61
When was National Harbour board setup?
A
1997
B
1950
C
1962
D
1970
Question 61 Explanation: 
The National Harbour board was set up in1950 to advise the Central and State Governments on the management and development of ports, particularly minor ports.
Question 62
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Electrical energy is one of the necessary components of our life
  2. The energy sources are classified under two heads based on the availability of the raw materials
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 62 Explanation: 
Electrical energy is one of the necessary components of our life. Nowadays, without electricity, we cannot survive in this world of technology. The energy sources are classified under two heads based on the availability of the raw materials used, while generating energy. 1. Non-renewable energy sources 2. Renewable energy sources.
Question 63
The sources of energy which cannot be renewed or re-used are called as____
A
Non-renewable energy sources
B
Renewable energy sources
C
Degradable sources
D
Both a and b
Question 63 Explanation: 
As the name suggests, the sources of energy which cannot be renewed or re-used are called non-renewable energy sources. Basically, these are the energy sources which will get exhausted over a period of time. Some of the examples of this kind of resources are coal, oil, gas etc.
Question 64
Which of the following is an odd one among the following?
A
Solar energy
B
Geothermal energy
C
Coal
D
Wind energy
Question 64 Explanation: 
Renewable energy sources are the kind of energy source which can be renewed or reused again and again. These kinds of materials do not exhaust or literally speaking these are available in abundant or infinite quantity. Example for this kind include 1. Solar energy 2. Wind energy 3. Tidal energy 4. Geothermal energy 5. Biomass energy Sometimes renewable sources are also called non-conventional sources of energy since, these kinds of materials or these ways of energy production were not used earlier or conventionally. Coal is Non-renewable energy sources
Question 65
  • Assertion(A): Social infrastructure refers to those structures which are improving the quality of manpower and contribute indirectly towards the growth of an economy.
  • Reason(R): Indian workers is the lack of development of social infrastructure.
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are wrong
C
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D
(A) is Correct and (R) is wrong
Question 65 Explanation: 
Social infrastructure refers to those structures which are improving the quality of manpower and contribute indirectly towards the growth of an economy. These structures are outside the system of production and distribution. The development of these social structures help in increasing the efficiency and productivity of manpower. For example, schools, colleges, hospitals and other civic amenities. It is a fact that one of the reasons for the low productivity of Indian workers is the lack of development of social infrastructure. The status and developments in the social infrastructure in India are discussed below.
Question 66
Which ministry formulates education policy in India and undertakes education programs?
A
Ministry of Ayush
B
Ministry of Home Affairs
C
Ministry of Finance
D
Ministry & Human Resource Development
Question 66 Explanation: 
Imparting education on an organized basis dates back to the days of ‘Gurukul’ in India. Since then the Indian education system has flourished and developed with the growing needs of the economy. The Ministry & Human Resource Development (MHRD) in India formulates education policy in India and also undertakes education programs.
Question 67
Until Which year Education was under the control of State Government alone?
A
1978
B
1976
C
1998
D
1991
Question 67 Explanation: 
Education in India until 1976 was the responsibility of the State governments. It was then brought under concurrent list (both Centre and State). The Centre is represented by the Ministry of Human Resource Development decides the India’s education budget.
Question 68
How many levels are there in education system in India?
A
4
B
5
C
3
D
6
Question 68 Explanation: 
The education system in India consists of primarily six levels: Nursery Class Primary Class Secondary Level Higher Secondary Level Graduation Post-Graduation
Question 69
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Education in India follows the 10+2 pattern.
  2. The accreditation of the universities is decided under the University Grant Commission Act
  3. The budget share of the education sector is around 23% of GDP, of this largest proportion goes for school education.
A
3 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 69 Explanation: 
Education in India follows the 10+2 pattern. For higher education, there are various State run as well as private institutions and universities providing a variety of courses and subjects. The accreditation of the universities is decided under the University Grant Commission Act. The Education Department consists of various schools, colleges and universities imparting education on fair means for all sections of the society. The budget share of the education sector is around 3% of GDP, of this largest proportion goes for school education. However, per pupil expenditure is the lowest for school students.
Question 70
Under whose responsibility health comes in India?
A
State
B
Centre
C
Concurrent
D
None
Question 70 Explanation: 
Health in India is a state government responsibility. The Central Council of Health and Welfare formulates the various health care projects and health department reform policies. The administration of health industry in India as well as the technical needs of the health sector are the responsibility of the Ministry of Health and Welfare.
Question 71
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Health care in India are the ayurvedic medicine practice, Unani or galenic herbal care, homeopathy, allopathy, yoga, and many more.
  2. The medical practicing in India needs a proper licensing from the Ministry of Health.
  3. All medical systems are now under one ministry viz AYUSH
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 71 Explanation: 
Health care in India has many forms. These are the ayurvedic medicine practice, Unani or galenic herbal care, homeopathy, allopathy, yoga, and many more. Each different healthcare form has its own treatment system and practice patterns. The medical practicing in India needs a proper licensing from the Ministry of Health. All medical systems are now under one ministry viz AYUSH.
Question 72
In terms of health status which state is in better position?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Kerala
C
Karnataka
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 72 Explanation: 
The health care services in India are mainly the responsibility of the Ministry of Health. State wise, health status is better in Kerala as compared to other States. Compared to other developed countries, India’s health status is not satisfactory. India’s health status is poor compared to Sri Lanka.
Question 73
To which century Thiruvalluvar belongs to?
A
3rd century A.D
B
2nd century A.D
C
3rd century B.C
D
2nd century B.C
Question 73 Explanation: 
The economic ideas of Thiruvalluvar are found in his immortal work, Thirukkural, a book of ethics. Even though scholars differ widely over the estimation of the period of Thiruvalluvar, it is generally believed that, he belongs to the Sangam age in Tamil Nadu around third century A.D. Thiruvalluvar’s work is marked by pragmatic idealism.
Question 74
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. A large part of Valluvar’s economic ideas are found in the First part of Thirukkural, the Arathupal
  2. Thiruvalluvar believes that rains are the basic support of life.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 74 Explanation: 
A large part of Valluvar’s economic ideas are found in the second part of Thirukkural, the porutpal. It deals with wealth. Thiruvalluvaris a fundamental thinker. He believes that rains are the basic support of life. Since rain provides food, it forms the basis for stable economic life. Agriculture which is the most fundamental economic activity depends on rain,”It is rain that both ruins and aids the ruined to rise”.
Question 75
What does this Kural mean? “Unfailing harvest, competent body of men, group of men, whose wealth knows no diminution, are the components of an economy”.
A
Agriculture
B
Factors of Production
C
Public Expenditure
D
Public Finance
Question 75 Explanation: 
Thiruvalluvar has made many passing references about the factors of production viz., Land, Labour, Capital, Organisation, Time, Technology etc. He says, “Unfailing harvest, competent body of men, group of men, whose wealth knows no diminution, are the components of an economy”. (Kural 61)
Question 76
What does this kural mean? “live as the freemen of the soil; the rest are mere slaves that follow on their toil”
A
Agriculture
B
Factors of Production
C
Public Expenditure
D
Public Finance
Question 76 Explanation: 
According to Thiruvalluvar, agriculture is the most fundamental economic activity. They are the axle-pin of the world, for on their prosperity revolves prosperity of other sectors of the economy, “The ploughmen alone”, he says “live as the freemen of the soil; the rest are mere slaves that follow on their toil” (Kural 1032). Valluvar believes that agriculture is superior to all other occupation.
Question 77
Which of the following are stated by Thiruvalluvar in Public Finance?
  1. Creation of revenue
  2. Collection of revenue
  3. Management of revenue
  4. Public expenditure
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 3, 4
C
2, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 77 Explanation: 
Thiruvalluvar has elaborately explained Public Finance under the headings Public Revenue, Financial Administration and Public expenditure. He has stated these as 1) Creation of revenue, 2) Collection of revenue, 3) Management of revenue 4) Public expenditure
Question 78
What does the Kural mean? “Budget for a surplus, if possible, balances the budget at other times, but never budget for a deficit.”
A
budgetary policy
B
Social Services
C
public expenditure
D
Public Finance
Question 78 Explanation: 
Valluvar has recommended a balanced budget. “It is not a great misfortune for a state if its revenues are limited, provided the expenditure is kept within bounds.” He has given certain guidelines for a budgetary policy. “Budget for a surplus, if possible, balances the budget at other times, but never budget for a deficit.” Valluvar advocates the following main items of public expenditure: 1) Defence 2) Public Works and 3) Social Services.
Question 79
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Valluvar was against seeking external assistance.
  2. According to Kural No. 739, countries taking external assistance are not to be considered as countries at all.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 79 Explanation: 
Valluvar was against seeking external assistance. According to Kural No. 739, countries taking external assistance are not to be considered as countries at all. In other words, he advocated a self-sufficient economy.
Question 80
According to Valluvar which one of the following is fundamental freedoms that should be enjoyed by every citizen?
A
Freedom from Hunger
B
Speech
C
Land
D
Worship
Question 80 Explanation: 
Valluvar considers freedom from hunger as one of the fundamental freedoms that should be enjoyed by every citizen. According to him ‘poverty’ is the root cause of all other evils which would lead to ever-lasting sufferings. It is to be noted that the number of people living below poverty line, begging, sleeping on the roadsides and rag picking in India has been increasing.
Question 81
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. Valluvar has regarded wealth as only a means and not an end
  2. To him industry is real wealth and labour is the greatest resource
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 81 Explanation: 
Valluvar has regarded wealth as only a means and not an end. He said, “Acquire a great fortune by noble and honorable means.” He condemned hoarding and described hoarded wealth as profitless richness. To him industry is real wealth and labour is the greatest resource.
Question 82
According to Valluvar which of the following won’t be there in a welfare state?
  1. Poverty
  2. Literacy
  3. Disease
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 82 Explanation: 
Thiruvalluvar is for a welfare state. In a welfare state there will be no poverty illiteracy, disease and industry. The important elements of a welfare state are 1) perfect health of the people without disease 2) abundant wealth, 3) good crop 4) prosperity and happiness and 5) full security for the people.
Question 83
In which year Gandhi stated this: “Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore, sinful.”
A
1921
B
1915
C
1906
D
1902
Question 83 Explanation: 
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. In 1921, Gandhi wrote, “Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore, sinful.” Again in 1924, he repeated the same belief: “that economy is untrue which ignores or disregards moral values”.
Question 84
Which of the following were opposed by Gandhi?
A
Machinery
B
Urbanization
C
Industrialization
D
All the above
Question 84 Explanation: 
To Gandhi, India lives in villages. He was interested in developing the villages as self-sufficient units. He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.
Question 85
  • Assertion(A): Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin
  • Reason(R): Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind
A
Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are wrong
C
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D
(A) is Correct and (R) is wrong
Question 85 Explanation: 
On Machinery: Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils… it is necessary to realize that machinery is bad. Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil. It would ultimately cease Industrialism: Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind. He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit. Decentralization: He advocated a decentralized economy, i.e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.
Question 86
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
  2. He was in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self-control.
  3. Gandhi was against any sort of food controls
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 86 Explanation: 
On the Food Problem: Gandhi was against any sort of food controls. He thought such controls only created artificial scarcity. Once India was begging for food grain, but India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc., On Population: Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives. He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self-control. He considered self-control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over-population.
Question 87
When did Jawaharlal Nehru died?
A
1960
B
1964
C
1959
D
1967
Question 87 Explanation: 
Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modern India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India and he was there in that post till his death in 1964. He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman. His views on economics and social problems are found in the innumerable speeches he made and in the books he wrote.
Question 88
Which of the following statement about Jawaharlal Nehru is correct?
  1. He believed in free speech civil liberty,adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 88 Explanation: 
Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy. He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy. Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India. In our country, there are many religions - Hinduism, Islam, Christianity, Buddhism, Jainism, Zoroastrianism, Sikhism and so on. But there is no domination by religious majority. Secularism means equal respect for all religions.
Question 89
Who among the following was the reason for introduction of planning in our country?
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
Jawaharlal Nehru
C
Acharaya Vinobhava
D
Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Question 89 Explanation: 
Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country. To Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
Question 90
In which year second planning commission drafted?
A
1960
B
1956
C
1954
D
1944
Question 90 Explanation: 
Initiating the debate on the Second Plan in the Lok Sabha in May 1956, Nehru spoke on the theme of planning. He said, “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on.” Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self- accelerating growth. Nehru carried through this basic strategy of planned development. Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten. It was during his period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established. He always in insisted on “scientific temper”.
Question 91
Who of the following put the country on the road towards a socialistic pattern of society?
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
B. R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhai Patel
Question 91 Explanation: 
Socialism is another contribution of Nehru to India. He put the country on the road towards a socialistic pattern of society. But Nehru’s socialism is democratic socialism.
Question 92
Which of the following statement about B. R. Ambedkar is correct?
  1. He was the architect of the Indian Constitution, a custodian of social justice and a champion of socialism and state planning.
  2. Ambedkar’s writings included “Ancient Indian Commerce” was submitted to the Columbia University for the award of the Mater of Arts Degree in 1915
  3. Ambedkar’s thesis on “Provincial Decentralization of Imperial Finance in British India” was accepted for the M. Sc degree in 1921.
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 92 Explanation: 
B. R. Ambedkar (1891- 1956) was a versatile personality. He was the architect of the Indian Constitution, a custodian of social justice and a champion of socialism and state planning. Ambedkar’s writings included “Ancient Indian Commerce” (a thesis submitted to the Columbia University for the award of the Mater of Arts Degree in 1915), ‘National Dividend of India: A Historical and Analytical Study (a thesis for which he was awarded Ph.D). His thesis was published as ‘The Evolution of Provincial Finance in British India: A Study of the Provincial Decentralization of Imperial Finance”. Ambedkar’s thesis on “Provincial Decentralization of Imperial Finance in British India” was accepted for the M. Sc degree in 1921.
Question 93
Which thesis of Ambedkar was accepted for award of the D.Sc degree by the London School of Economics?
A
‘The Evolution of Provincial Finance in British India: A Study of the Provincial Decentralization of Imperial Finance”
B
Poverty and Un-British rule in India
C
“Ancient Indian Commerce”
D
“The Problem of the Rupee”
Question 93 Explanation: 
Ambedkar’s thesis “The Problem of the Rupee” was accepted for the award of the D.Sc degree by the London School of Economics in 1923. It is a miracle that RBI was conceptualized as per the guidelines presented by Ambedkar in his book, “The Problem of the Rupee; Its origin and its solution”.
Question 94
Match the following: Ambedkar’s evolution of provisional finance
  1. Budget by Assignment                    1. 1882-83 to 1920-1921
  2. Budget by Assigned Revenue         2. 1871-72 to 1876-77
  3. Budget by Shared Revenues           3. 1877-78 to 1881-82
A
3, 1, 2
B
3, 2, 1
C
2, 3, 1
D
1, 3, 2
Question 94 Explanation: 
Much of the work done by Ambedkar during his stay abroad mostly during the period 1913-1923, was in the field of Finance Economics. Ambedkar divided the evolution of provisional finance into three stages: (i). Budget by Assignment (1871-72 to 1876-77); (ii) Budget by Assigned Revenue (1877-78 to 1881-82); and (iii) Budget by Shared Revenues (1882-83 to 1920-1921).
Question 95
In which year Ambedkar published a paper “Small Holding in India and their Remedies”?
A
1919
B
1956
C
1918
D
1935
Question 95 Explanation: 
In 1918, Ambedkar published a paper “Small Holding in India and their Remedies”. Citing Adam Smith’s ‘Wealth of Nations”, he made a fine distinction between “Consolidation of Holdings” and “Enlargement of Holdings”.
Question 96
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. Ambedkar believed that caste was an obstacle to social mobility
  2. He was of the firm view that individuals must be free to change their occupations.
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 96 Explanation: 
Ambedkar believed that caste was an obstacle to social mobility. It resulted in social stratification. He was of the firm view that individuals must be free to change their occupations. Moreover, the caste system caused social tensions. The caste system has resulted in the absence of social democracy in India as distinct from political democracy.
Question 97
Which of the following was Ambedkar?
A
Socialist
B
Capitalist
C
Communist
D
Fascist
Question 97 Explanation: 
Ambedkar was a socialist. He was a champion of state socialism. He advocated the nationalization of all key industries and suggested state ownership of land and collective farming. He was for state monopoly of insurance business. Not only that, he advocated compulsory insurance for every citizen. There is no doubt that Ambedkar was a great economist. But his academic work as an economist was eclipsed by his greater contributions in the field of law and politics. Above all he was a great social reformer.
Question 98
Where did J. C. Kumarappa born?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Kerala
C
Karnataka
D
Andhra Pradesh
Question 98 Explanation: 
Joseph Chelladurai Kumarappa was born on 4 January 1892 in Tanjavur, Tamil Nadu. A pioneer of rural economic development theories, Kumarappa is credited for developing economic theories based on Gandhism – a school of economic thought he coined “Gandhian Economics”.
Question 99
Which of the following statement is correct?
  1. J.C. Kumarappa strongly supported Gandhi’s notion of village industries and promoted Village Industries Associations
  2. Kumarappa served as the editor of Skill India during the Salt Satyagraha
  3. He wrote during his imprisonment, Economy of Permanence: The Practice and Precepts of Jesus (1945) and Christianity: Its Economy and Way of Life (1945).
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 99 Explanation: 
J.C. Kumarappa strongly supported Gandhi’s notion of village industries and promoted Village Industries Associations. Kumarappa worked to combine Christian and Gandhian values of “trusteeship”, nonviolence and a focus on human dignity and development in place of materialism as the basis of his economic theories. While rejecting socialism’s emphasis on class war and force in implementation, he also rejected the emphasis on material development, competition and efficiency in free-market economies. Gandhi and Kumarappa envisioned an economy focused on satisfying human needs and challenges while rooting out socio-economic conflict, unemployment, poverty and deprivation. Kumarappa worked as a Professor of economics at the Gujarat Vidyapith in Ahmedabad, while serving as the editor of Young India during the Salt Satyagraha. He founded the All India Village Industries Association in 1935; and was imprisoned for more than a year during the Quit India movement. He wrote during his imprisonment, Economy of Permanence: The Practice and Precepts of Jesus (1945) and Christianity: Its Economy and Way of Life (1945).
Question 100
For which of the followings Kumarappa worked?
  1. Planning Commission of India
  2. INC to develop national policies for agriculture and rural development
  3. Green Revolution
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 100 Explanation: 
Kumarappa worked for the Planning Commission of India and the Indian National Congress to develop national policies for agriculture and rural development. He also travelled to China, Eastern Europe and Japan on diplomatic assignments and to study their rural economic systems.
Question 101
According to P.R. Brahmananda who of the following are great trinity of pre- independent and post independent Indian economists?
  1. D.R. Gadgill
  2. M.S. Swaminathan
  3.  C.N. Vakil
  4.  V.K.RV. Rao
A
1, 2, 3
B
1, 3, 4
C
2, 3, 4
D
All the above
Question 101 Explanation: 
According to P.R. Brahmananda, “the great trinity of pre- independent and post independent Indian economists consisted of D.R.Gadgill, C.N.Vakil and V.K.RV. Rao. These scholars were imbibed with a missionary zeal and analyzed the Indian economic problems with a view to designing and propagating economic policies/programmes and plans to India’s national advantage.” V.K.R.V: Rao was a prolific writer.
Question 102
Who among the following was a pupil of J.M. Keynes and he worked with Colin Clark?
A
D.R. Gadgill
B
M.S. Swaminathan
C
C.N. Vakil
D
V.K.RV. Rao
Question 102 Explanation: 
As an applied economist, Rao’s name is remembered for his pioneering work on the enumeration of national income of India. Rao was a pupil of J.M. Keynes and he worked with Colin Clark. H.W Singer considered V.K.R.V Rao as “the best equipped of all Keynes’ pupils. He attempted (i) to develop the national income concepts suited to India and developing countries generally; (ii) to analyse the concepts of investment, saving and the multipliers in an underdeveloped economy; and (iii) to study the compatibility of the national incomes of industrialized and underdeveloped countries. Rao’s paper on “Full Employment and Economic Development” was one of the earliest contributions in the field of development towards employment.
Question 103
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
  1. During the early phases of planning in India, Rao supported the case of a socialist India
  2. Rao was influential in creating ideas and shaping policy in the international attack on world poverty, not only through his contributions to the question of international aid
A
1 alone
B
2 alone
C
1, 2
D
None
Question 103 Explanation: 
Rao was influential in creating ideas and shaping policy in the international attack on world poverty, not only through his contributions to the question of international aid and improved flows of external resources, but also through his activities in the field of food aid. During the early phases of planning in India, Rao supported the case of a socialist India, where the state would control the commanding heights of the economy and the public sector would play a dominant role in economic development.
Question 104
In which year “What is wrong with Indian Economic Life?’ was released?
A
1938
B
1928
C
1926
D
1939
Question 104 Explanation: 
In his pamphlet “What is wrong with Indian Economic Life?’ (1938), Rao gave the following reasons for low per capita income and low levels of per capita nutrition in India. Uneconomic holdings with subdivisions and fragmentation; ii. Low levels of water availability for crops; iii. Excess population pressure on agriculture due to the absence of a large industrial sector; iv. Absence of capital; v. Absence of autonomy in currency policy, and in general in monetary matters encouraging holding of gold.
Question 105
In which Rao examined interrelation between investment, income and multiplier in an under developed economy?
A
1952
B
1962
C
1992
D
1950
Question 105 Explanation: 
Rao’s examination of the “interrelation between investment, income and multiplier in an under developed economy” (1952) was his major contribution to macroeconomic theory. As a thinker, teacher, economic adviser and direct policy maker, V.K.R.V. Rao followed the footsteps of his great teacher, John Maynard Keynes.
Question 106
Institute for Social and Economic Change is situated in________
A
New Delhi
B
Bangalore
C
Hyderabad
D
Chennai
Question 106 Explanation: 
Rao founded three national level research institutes namely Delhi School of Economics, Institute of Economic Growth (both at Delhi) and Institute for Social and Economic Change (Bangalore).
Question 107
In which year Amartya Kumar Sen received noble prize?
A
2007
B
1998
C
1991
D
1999
Question 107 Explanation: 
The Nobel citation refers to Sen’s contributions to social choice theory, d e v e l o p m e n t economics, study on poverty and famines and concept of entitlements and capability development (1998).
Question 108
‘Choice of Technique ‘was the work of____
A
V.K.R.V. Rao
B
P.R. Brahmananda
C
C.N. Vakil
D
Amartya Kumar Sen
Question 108 Explanation: 
Sen’s ‘Choice of Technique’ was a research work where he argued that in a labour surplus economy, generation of employment cannot be increased at the initial stage by the adaptation of capital- intensive technique.
Question 109
In which year Sen's Poverty and Famines: An Essay on Entitlement and Deprivation” ] was released?
A
1998
B
1991
C
1981
D
1994
Question 109 Explanation: 
Sen's Poverty and Famines: An Essay on Entitlement and Deprivation” (1981) is both a theoretical and an applied work. In the book, several famines have been studied in the working of a general theoretical framework from an original angle. He examined various meanings of poverty and drew attention to the incidence of absolute and relative deprivation.
Question 110
In which of the following field Sen has carried out massive work?
  1. Poverty
  2. Racism
  3. Inequality
A
1, 2
B
1, 3
C
2, 3
D
All the above
Question 110 Explanation: 
Sen has carried out massive work on poverty and inequality in India. Sen’s major point has been that the distribution of income/ consumption among the persons below the poverty line is to be taken into account. Amartya Sen, more than just an economist, is an ethical philosopher. He is a lover of freedom and a humanist. He has focused on the poor, viewing them not as objects of pity requiring charitable hand–outs, but as disempowered folkneeding empowerment, education, health, nutrition, gender equality, safety net in times of distress; all are needed to empower people.
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