Breeding and Biotechnology Online Test 10th Science Lesson 20 Questions in English

Breeding and Biotechnology Online Test 10th Science Lesson 20 Questions in English

Congratulations - you have completed Breeding and Biotechnology Online Test 10th Science Lesson 20 Questions in English. You scored %%SCORE%% out of %%TOTAL%%. Your performance has been rated as %%RATING%%
Your answers are highlighted below.
Question 1
Which is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modern agricultural techniques in underdeveloped and developing nations?
A
Green revolution
B
Blue revolution
C
White revolution
D
Yellow revolution
Question 1 Explanation: 
Green Revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modern agricultural techniques in underdeveloped and developing nations.
Question 2
Who among the following is the “Father of the Green Revolution”, received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970?
A
Norman Borlaug
B
Pedro Sanchez
C
Salim Ali
D
M. S. Swaminathan
Question 2 Explanation: 
Dr Norman E. Borlaug, an American agronomist the “Father of the Green Revolution”, received the Nobel Peace Prize in 1970.
Question 3
Which among the following statement is correct
  • India’s population is likely to reach 3.7 billion by 2050. Current rate of India’s food production will be able to meet only 39% of the country’s food demand at that time. How can India feed 1.7 billion people by 2050? This can be made possible by ‘Plant breeding’ and ‘Animal feeding’.
  • Plant breeding is the art of developing economically important plants with superior quality. Animal husbandry involves the breeding of animals. It aims at improving the genotypes of animals to make them more useful to the welfare of mankind.
  • Another breakthrough was the emergence of biotechnology as an entity of modern biology, which paved way to develop advanced healthcare products, diagnostic kits and food production to improve the quality of human life.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 3 Explanation: 
India’s population is likely to reach 1.7 billion by 2050. Current rate of India’s food production will be able to meet only 59% of the country’s food demand at that time. How can India feed 1.7 billion people by 2050? This can be made possible by ‘Plant breeding’ and ‘Animal husbandry’.
Question 4
Who among the following is known as father of Indian green revolution?
A
C. v. Raman
B
Verghese Kurien
C
C. N. Rao
D
M. S. Swaminathan
Question 4 Explanation: 
Dr. Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan is an Indian scientist known for his leading role in India’s Green Revolution. His research on potato, wheat, rice and jute are well known plant breeding experiments. Due to his efforts the wheat production increased from twelve million tonnes in 1960's to seventy million tonnes now. He is aptly called as the “Father of Indian Green Revolution”.
Question 5
In India Dr M. S. Swaminathan joined with Dr Borlaug in bringing Green Revolution by introducing which wheat variety?
A
Russian wheat varieties
B
Chinese wheat varieties
C
Mexican wheat varieties
D
Moroccan wheat varieties
Question 5 Explanation: 
In India Dr M. S. Swaminathan joined with Dr Borlaug in bringing Green Revolution by introducing Mexican wheat varieties. This eventually increased wheat and rice production between 1960 and 2000.
Question 6
Which among the following is not semi-dwarf varieties of wheat developed from high-yielding, semi-dwarf, fertilizer responsive wheat varieties from Mexico?
A
Sonalika
B
Kalyan Sona
C
Triguna
D
All the above
Question 6 Explanation: 
Sonalika, Kalyan Sona are semi-dwarf varieties of wheat developed from highyielding, semi-dwarf, fertilizer responsive wheat varieties from Mexico.
Question 7
In which among the following country International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) is located?
A
India
B
Indonesia
C
Philippines
D
Brazil
Question 7 Explanation: 
International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) is located in Los Banos, Philippines.
Question 8
Which is a high-yielding semi-dwarf rice variety developed by International Rice Research Institute (IRRI), Philippines?
A
Ponni
B
IET - 12617
C
HMT
D
IR - 8
Question 8 Explanation: 
IR-8 is a high-yielding semi-dwarf rice variety developed by International Rice Research Institute (IRRI), Philippines.
Question 9
In 1966, in which two country IR-8 was first introduced?
A
Philippines and India
B
Philippines and Indonesia
C
Philippines and Mexico
D
Philippines and China
Question 9 Explanation: 
In 1966, IR-8 was first introduced in Philippines and India.
Question 10
IR-8 was a hybrid of a which two high yielding rice variety?
A
Peta and Dee-geo-woo-gen
B
Giho and Dee-geo-woo-gen
C
Cisokan and Dee-geo-woo-gen
D
Cirata and Dee-geo-woo-gen
Question 10 Explanation: 
IR-8 was a hybrid of a high yielding rice variety Peta from Indonesia, and Dee-geo-woo-gen (DGWG) a dwarf variety from China.
Question 11
Who among the following was a Tamil agricultural scientist, environmental activist and organic farming expert?
A
Subash Palekar
B
Masanobu
C
Nammalvar
D
Rajiv Kanna
Question 11 Explanation: 
Dr. G. Nammalvar (1938-2013) was a Tamil agricultural scientist, environmental activist and organic farming expert. He founded Nammalvar Ecological Foundation for Farm Research and Global Food Security Trust (NEFFFRGFSTVanagam) to create public awareness about the benefits of organic farming.
Question 12
Which among the following pathogen does not affect plant?
A
Virus
B
Bacteria
C
Fungi
D
None of the above
Question 12 Explanation: 
Plant diseases are caused by pathogens like viruses, bacteria and fungi. This affects crop yield. Hence, it is important to develop disease resistant varieties of crops, that would increase the yield and reduce the use of fungicides and bactericides.
Question 13
Which among the following is the disease resistant variety of wheat?
A
Pusa Shubhra
B
Pusa Komal
C
Himgiri
D
All the above
Question 13 Explanation: 
Himigiri is the disease resistance variety of wheat. It was resistance to Leaf and stipe rust, hill bunt.
Question 14
Which among the following is the disease resistance variety of cowpea?
A
Pusa Shubhra
B
Pusa Komal
C
Pusa Snowball K-1
D
All the above
Question 14 Explanation: 
Pusa Komal is the disease resistance variety of Cowpea.
Question 15
Pusa Shubhra is a disease resistance variety of which crop?
A
Lemon
B
Carrot
C
Cauliflower
D
Pineapple
Question 15 Explanation: 
Pusa Shubhra and Pusa Snowball K-1 are disease resistance variety of cauliflower. It was resistance to Black rot.
Question 16
Which among the following statement is correct..
  1. Und these conditions, human and animal health are to be determined by the nutritional quernutrition and protein malnutrition among human population is a major health problem which has been receiving much focus throughout the world. Apart, from humans it also affects the health of farm animals.
  2. To combatality of the feed crops. The nutritional quality of crops depends on quality and quantity of nutrients. The nutritional quality may be improved with respect to its 1. Protein content and quality of protein 2. Oil content 3. Mineral content.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 17
Which is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals?
A
Biotique
B
Labiovelars
C
Biophilias
D
Biofortification
Question 17 Explanation: 
Biofortification is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Some examples are Iron rich fortified rice variety and Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.
Question 18
Which among the following is not the lysine rich maize hybrids?
A
Protina
B
Poorva
C
Shakti
D
Rathna
Question 18 Explanation: 
Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids (developed in India).
Question 19
Which among the following is the variety of Brassica resistance to Aphids?
A
Pusa Gaurav
B
Pusa Sawani
C
Pusa Sem 2
D
All the above
Question 19 Explanation: 
Pusa Gaurav is the variety of Brassica that are resistance to Aphids.
Question 20
Which among the following is the protein rich wheat variety?
A
Vista
B
Caloro-2
C
Aromatic
D
Atlas-66
Question 20 Explanation: 
Atlas 66 is a protein rich wheat variety.
Question 21
Which among the following is not the variety of lady’s finger?
A
Pusa Sawani
B
Pusa Sem 2
C
Pusa A4
D
None of the above
Question 21 Explanation: 
Pusa Sawani and Pusa Sem-2 are the varieties of lady’s finger resistance to shoot and fruit borer.
Question 22
Which among the following is not the methods of Plant Breeding for Crop Improvement?
A
Selection
B
Crafting
C
Mutation breeding
D
Hybridization
Question 22 Explanation: 
Methods of plant breeding to develop high yielding varieties are given below: 1. Introduction of new varieties of plants 2. Selection 3. Polyploidy breeding 4. Mutation breeding 5. Hybridization.
Question 23
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another. Such plants are called as _____
A
Endemic species
B
Exotic species
C
Mids species
D
Concentrated species
Question 23 Explanation: 
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another. Such plants are called as exotic species. These imported plant materials may carry pathogens and pests, hence they are thoroughly tested in a plant quarantine before being introduced to the fields.
Question 24
Pusa Sem 2 and Pusa Sem 3 are varieties of which among the following crop?
A
Pumpkin
B
Tall Radish
C
Bottle Gourd
D
Flat Beans
Question 24 Explanation: 
Pusa Sem 2 and Pusa Sem 3 are varieties of Flat bean.
Question 25
Pusa sem 2 and Pusa sem 3 (varieties of flat bean) are resistance to which among the following pests?
A
Leaf hopper
B
Aphids
C
Fruit borer
D
All the above
Question 25 Explanation: 
Pusa sem 2 and Pusa sem 3 (varieties of flat bean) are resistance to Leaf hopper, aphids and fruit borer.
Question 26
Which is one of the oldest methods of plant breeding in which individual plants or groups of plants are sorted out from a mixed population based on the morphological characters?
A
Breeding
B
Selection
C
Hybridization
D
Termination
Question 26 Explanation: 
Selection is one of the oldest methods of plant breeding in which individual plants or groups of plants are sorted out from a mixed population based on the morphological characters
Question 27
how many methods of selection of crops are there?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Six
Question 27 Explanation: 
There are three methods of selection. They are 1. Mass selection 2. Pure line selection 3. Clonal selection.
Question 28
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called ____
A
Clones
B
Mutants
C
Prophies
D
Pales
Question 28 Explanation: 
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones.
Question 29
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. All the plants of a clone are similar both in genotype and phenotype. Selection of desirable clones from the mixed population of vegetatively propagated crop is called clonal selection.
  2. In mass selection, Seeds of best plants showing various characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for three or four generations.
  3. At the end, they will be multiplied and distributed to the farmers for cultivation. Some common examples for mass selection are groundnut varieties like TMV–2 and AK–10.
A
Both 1 and 2
B
Both 1 and 3
C
Both 2 and 3
D
All 1, 2 and 3
Question 29 Explanation: 
Seeds of best plants showing desired characters are collected from a mixed population. The collected seeds are allowed to raise the second generation. This process is carried out for seven or eight generations.
Question 30
Pure line selection is also called as ____
A
Variety plant selection
B
Hybrid plant selection
C
Mutant plant selection
D
Individual plant selection
Question 30 Explanation: 
Pure line is “the progeny of a single individual obtained by self-breeding”. This is also called as individual plant selection. In pure line selection large numbers of plants are selected from a self-pollinated crop and harvested individually. Individual plant progenies from them are evaluated separately. The best one is released as a pure line variety. Progeny is similar both genotypically and phenotypically.
Question 31
Sexually reproducing organisms have two complete set of chromosomes (Diploid) in which cell in plant?
A
Xylem cells
B
Phloem cells
C
Parenchyma cells
D
Somatic cells
Question 31 Explanation: 
Sexually reproducing organisms have two complete set of chromosomes in their somatic cells. This is called diploid (2n).
Question 32
The gametic cells have only one set of chromosomes. This is called _____
A
Amyloid
B
Myceloid
C
Haploid
D
Polyploid
Question 32 Explanation: 
The gametic cells have only one set of chromosomes. This is called haploid (n).
Question 33
An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called _____
A
Amyloid
B
Myceloid
C
Haploid
D
Polyploid
Question 33 Explanation: 
An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called polyploid. An organism having more than two sets of chromosomes is called polyploid (Greek : Polys = many + aploos = one fold + eidos = form). Such condition is called Polyploidy. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine.
Question 34
Which among the following about achievement of polyploid breeding is incorrect?
A
Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n)
B
TV-29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
C
Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of corn and sunflower. To make this plant fertile polyploidy is induced. It has higher dietary minerals and protein.
D
Raphano brassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment
Question 34 Explanation: 
Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye. To make this plant fertile polyploidy is induced. It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
Question 35
Which is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism?
A
Hybridization
B
Mutation
C
Conjunction
D
Poking
Question 35 Explanation: 
Mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. It is a process by which genetic variations are created which in turn brings about changes in the organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.
Question 36
How many types of mutagens are there?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
Six
Question 36 Explanation: 
The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. Mutagens are of two types namely physical mutagens and chemical mutagens.
Question 37
Atomic garden is a concept popularised after World War II for the peaceful use of atomic energy for crop improvement. Atomic garden is also known as _____?
A
Alpha garden
B
Beta garden
C
Gamma garden
D
Si garden
Question 37 Explanation: 
Gamma garden or Atomic garden is a concept popularised after World War II for the peaceful use of atomic energy for crop improvement. This is a type of induced mutation breeding where radioactive sources particularly gamma rays from Cobalt-60 or Caesium-137 are used to induce desirable mutations in crop plants.
Question 38
Which among the following is not the physical mutagens?
A
X-rays
B
β rays
C
UV rays
D
None of the above
Question 38 Explanation: 
Radiations like X-rays, α, β and γ-rays, UV rays, temperature etc are which induce mutations are called physical mutagens.
Question 39
Which among the following is not the chemical mutagens?
A
Mustards gas
B
Nitrous acid
C
Sulphuric acid
D
None of the above
Question 39 Explanation: 
Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens. e.g., Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilisation of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation breeding.
Question 40
Which among the following achievements of mutation breeding is incorrect
A
Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora-64 by using gamma rays.
B
Atomita 2 carrot with saline tolerance and pest resistance
C
Groundnuts with thick shells
D
None of the above
Question 40 Explanation: 
Atomita 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
Question 41
Which is defined as the process of crossing two or more types of plants for bringing their desired characters together into one progeny?
A
Mutation
B
Hybridization
C
Poking
D
Conjunction
Question 41 Explanation: 
Hybridization may be defined as the process of crossing two or more types of plants for bringing their desired characters together into one progeny called hybrid. Hybrid is superior in one or more characters to both parents. Hybridization is the common method of creating genetic variation to get improved varieties.
Question 42
Which is the first man- made cereal hybrid?
A
Rye
B
Secale
C
Spelt
D
Triticale
Question 42 Explanation: 
Triticale is the first man- made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat (Triticum durum, 2n = 28) and rye (Secale cereal, 2n = 14). The F1 hybrid is sterile (2n = 21). Then the chromosome number is doubled using colchicine and it becomes a hexaploid Triticale (2n = 42).
Question 43
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. In Hybridization the cycle of crop raising and selection continues till the plants with the desired characters are finally obtained. The development of new varieties is a long-drawn process. Two main aspects of hybridization are to combine the characters of two plants in one plant and to utilize hybrid vigour.
  2. A breed is a group of animals of common origin within a genus that has certain distinguishing characters that are not found in other members of the same genus like general appearance and others striking features. Breeding involves mating parents of different varieties each having some desired trait which are passed onto the offspring.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 43 Explanation: 
A breed is a group of animals of common origin within a species that has certain distinguishing characters that are not found in other members of the same species like general appearance and others striking features. Breeding involves mating parents of different varieties each having some desired trait which are passed onto the offspring.
Question 44
When breeding takes place between animals of the same breed, it is called ____
A
Co-breeding
B
Inbreeding
C
Outbreeding
D
Both Inbreeding and Co-breeding
Question 44 Explanation: 
Animal breeding aims at improving the genotypes of domesticated animals to increase their yield and improve the desirable qualities to produce milk, egg and meat. When breeding takes place between animals of the same breed, it is called inbreeding. The cross between different breeds is called outbreeding.
Question 45
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. Inbreeding refers to the mating of closely related animals within the same breed for about 4-6 generations. Superior males and superior females of the same breed are identified and mated in pairs. It helps in the accumulation of superior genes and elimination of genes which are undesirable.
  2. Outbreeding is the breeding of unrelated animals. The offspring’s formed are called hybrids. The hybrids are stronger and vigorous than their parents. Cross between two different species with desirable features of economic value are mated.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 46
Which is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri (Magra) ewes and Australian Marino rams?
A
Hissardale
B
Melospiza
C
Adactylidium
D
Leghorn
Question 46 Explanation: 
Hissardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri (Magra) ewes and Australian Marino rams. Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity. Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
Question 47
Which is a cross breed produced from horse and donkey, which is superior to horse in strength, intelligence, ability to work and resistance to diseases but they are sterile?
A
Hinny
B
Liger
C
Mule
D
Cama
Question 47 Explanation: 
Mule is a cross breed produced from horse and donkey, which is superior to horse in strength, intelligence, ability to work and resistance to diseases but they are sterile.
Question 48
Which breed is produced from mating of brown swiss and Sahiwal?
A
Gyr swiss
B
Rathi swiss
C
Malvi swiss
D
Karan swiss
Question 48 Explanation: 
Karan swiss is produced from mating of brown swiss and Sahiwal. Karan Swiss - yield 2-3 times more milk than indigenous cows.
Question 49
Hybrid fowl that yield more eggs is produced from mating which two breeds?
A
White leghorn and Araucana
B
Amrock and Welsummer
C
White Leghorn and Plymouth Rock
D
Araucana and Amrock
Question 49 Explanation: 
Hybrid fowl that yield more eggs is produced from mating White Leghorn and Plymouth Rock.
Question 50
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called as ____
A
Selenosis
B
Trichosis
C
Pycnosis
D
Heterosis
Question 50 Explanation: 
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross breeding is called as heterosis or hybrid vigour. They have increased production of milk by cattle, Increased production of egg by poultry, High quality of meat is produced and Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.
Question 51
Which is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one organism to other organisms to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA (rDNA)?
A
Genetic Selection
B
Genetic Engineering
C
Genetic Polygon
D
Genetic Confetti
Question 51 Explanation: 
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one organism to other organisms to create a new DNA called as recombinant DNA (rDNA). The term recombinant is used because DNA from two different sources can be joined together. Hence, genetic engineering is also called as recombinant DNA technology.
Question 52
Which is the small circular double stranded DNA molecule found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell and separated from chromosomal DNA.?
A
Pilus
B
Plasmid
C
Ribosomes
D
Cytoplasm
Question 52 Explanation: 
Plasmid is the small circular double stranded DNA molecule found in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell and separated from chromosomal DNA. It can replicate independently.
Question 53
Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding discoveries that led to the stepping stone of rDNA technology?
A
Presence of plasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
B
Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
C
Restriction enzymes recognises a specific base pair sequence (Aerobic sequence) in DNA called as Production site and cleaves the phosphodiester bond within DNA.
D
DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments
Question 53 Explanation: 
Restriction enzymes recognises a specific base pair sequence (palindromic sequence) in DNA called as restriction site and cleaves the phosphodiester bond within DNA.
Question 54
The carbon copy of an individual is often called a ____
A
Mutant
B
Clone
C
Positron
D
Seed
Question 54 Explanation: 
The carbon copy of an individual is often called a clone. However, more appropriately, a clone means to make a genetically exact copy of an organism.
Question 55
In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into which cell?
A
Spores cell
B
Virus cell
C
Bacterial cell
D
All the above
Question 55 Explanation: 
In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides.
Question 56
Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding steps involved in gene cloning?
A
Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes
B
Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (cytoplasm) to make rDNA
C
Transfer of rDNA into bacterial host cell (Transformation)
D
Selection and multiplication of recombinant host cell to get a clone. Expression of cloned gene in host cell.
Question 56 Explanation: 
Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (Plasmid) to make rDNA.
Question 57
Which was the first cloned sheep?
A
Dolly
B
Knut
C
Knut
D
Laika
Question 57 Explanation: 
Dolly was the first cloned sheep.
Question 58
Dolly was the first cloned female sheep, developed by whom at the Roslin Institute, Scotland in July 1996?
A
Ian Wilmut
B
Christopher Polge
C
Hwang Woo-Suk
D
Hans Clevers
Question 58 Explanation: 
Dolly was the first cloned female sheep, developed by Dr. Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at the Roslin Institute, Scotland in July 1996. She was created by somatic cell nuclear transfer technique. She lived for 6.5 years and died in 2003 because of lung disease.
Question 59
Which among the following statement incorrect regarding Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique is incorrect
A
Development of vaccines against various diseases like Hepatitis B and rabies
B
Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
C
Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and prevent heart attack
D
None of the above
Question 59 Explanation: 
Using genetic engineering techniques medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides that form the potential pharmaceutical products for treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale. Includes Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes and Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia and others.
Question 60

In which country Eli lilly and company in 1979 first started commercial production of human insulin by using rDNA technology?

A
United States
B
China
C
Russia
D
France
Question 60 Explanation: 
Eli Lilly and Company, United States, in 1979 first started commercial production of human insulin by using rDNA technology.
Question 61
Gene therapy refers to the replacement of defective gene by the direct transfer of functional genes into humans to treat genetic disease or disorder. In which year it was implemented successfully?
A
1990
B
1993
C
1997
D
1999
Question 61 Explanation: 
Gene therapy refers to the replacement of defective gene by the direct transfer of functional genes into humans to treat genetic disease or disorder. The genetic makeup of the ‘patient’ cell is altered using recombinant DNA technology. It was first successfully implemented in 1990.
Question 62
Gene therapy conducted till date has targeted only which cell?
A
Somatic cell
B
Reproductive cell
C
Pinner cell
D
None of the above
Question 62 Explanation: 
Somatic gene therapy is the replacement of defective gene in somatic cells. Germ line gene therapy replacement of defective gene in germ cell (egg and sperm). Gene therapy conducted till Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.date has targeted only somatic (non-reproductive) cells. Correction of genetic defects in somatic cells may be beneficial to the patient but the corrected gene may not be carried to the next generation.
Question 63
Which among the following cell function is to secrete insulin?
A
Nerve cells
B
Stem cell
C
Pancreatic cell
D
Heart cell
Question 63 Explanation: 
Our body is composed of over 200 specialised cell types, that can carry out specific functions. e.g. neurons or nerve cell that can transmit signals, or heart cells which contract to pump blood or pancreatic cells to secrete insulin.
Question 64
The Specialised cells are called as ____
A
Productivity cells
B
Differentiated cells
C
Undifferentiated cells
D
Closet cells
Question 64 Explanation: 
The specialised cells are called as differentiated cells.
Question 65
In contrast to differentiated cells, which cells are undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells?
A
Nerve cells
B
Stem cells
C
Pancreatic cells
D
Heart cells
Question 65 Explanation: 
In contrast to differentiated cells, stem cells are undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells. The stem cells are the cells of variable potency. Potency refers to the number of possible fates that a cell can acquire.
Question 66
Which among the following is not the property of stem cells
A
Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal
B
Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation
C
Its ability to give rise to mutant cells with adaptation to new host
D
None of the above
Question 66 Explanation: 
The two important properties of stem cells that differentiate them from other cells are: i. its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal ii. its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.
Question 67
Which among the following is not the type of stem cell?
A
Embryonic stem cells
B
Adult stem cell
C
Somatic stem cell
D
None of the above
Question 67 Explanation: 
The stem cell are two types. They are Embryonic stem cells and Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell.
Question 68
Embryonic stem cells are derived from the inner cell mass of ____
A
Nematocyst
B
Blastocyst
C
Heterocyst
D
Microcyst
Question 68 Explanation: 
Embryonic stem cells can be extracted and cultured from the early embryos. These cells are derived from the inner cell mass of blastocyst. These cells can be developed into any cell in the body.
Question 69
Which among the following is not the source of stem cells?
A
Amniotic fluid
B
Umbilical cord
C
Spleen
D
Bone marrow.
Question 69 Explanation: 
Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell are found in the neonatal (new born) and adults. They have the ability to divide and give rise to specific cell types. Sources of adult stem cells are amniotic fluid, umbilical cord and bone marrow.
Question 70
Sometimes cells, tissues and organs in the body may be permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury. In such situations stem cells are used for the treatment of diseases which is called ____
A
Stem cell cosmetic
B
Stem cell therapy
C
Stem cell therapy
D
All the above
Question 70 Explanation: 
Sometimes cells, tissues and organs in the body may be permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury. In such situations stem cells are used for the treatment of diseases which is called stem-cell therapy.
Question 71
Which among the following is not the neurodegenerative disorders?
A
Parkinson’s disease
B
Alzheimer’s disease
C
Arthritis disease
D
None of the above
Question 71 Explanation: 
In treating neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease neuronal stem cells can be used to replace the damaged or lost neurons.
Question 72
Who among the following developed DNA Fingerprinting Technology?
A
Alec Jeffreys
B
Colin Pitchfork
C
Edmond Locard
D
Kary Mullis
Question 72 Explanation: 
DNA Fingerprinting Technology was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
Question 73
Which among the following statement is correct
  1. The human genome has 1.5 billion base pairs. Did you know that the DNA pattern of two individuals cannot be same including their identical twins. Each person’s DNA sequence is unique due to the small difference in the base pairs. Therefore, if we want to compare the genetic difference among the two individuals, DNA fingerprinting is the easier and quicker method.
  2. The technique analyses each individual’s unique DNA sequences and provides distinctive characteristics of individual which helps in identification. Variable number of tandem repeat sequences (VNTRs) serve as molecular markers for identification.
A
Only 1
B
Only 2
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None
Question 73 Explanation: 
The human genome has 3 billion base pairs. Did you know that the DNA pattern of two individuals cannot be same except for identical twins. Each person’s DNA sequence is unique due to the small difference in the base pairs. Therefore, if we want to compare the genetic difference among the two individuals, DNA fingerprinting is the easier and quicker method.
Question 74
In human beings, 99 % of the DNA base sequences are the same and this is called as ___
A
Caravan DNA
B
Bulk genomic DNA
C
Scissor cave DNA
D
Cocoon genomic DNA
Question 74 Explanation: 
In human beings, 99 % of the DNA base sequences are the same and this is called as bulkgenomic DNA.
Question 75
In human being, 1 % DNA sequence differs from one individual to another. This 1 % DNA sequence is present as small stretch of repeated sequences which is known as ____
A
Satellite DNA
B
Caravan DNA
C
Marvin DNA
D
Captive DNA
Question 75 Explanation: 
In human being, 1 % DNA sequence differs from one individual to another. This 1 % DNA sequence is present as small stretch of repeated sequences which is known as satellite DNA. The satellite DNA bring about variation within the population. Variation in DNA banding pattern reveals differences among the individuals.
Question 76
The number of copies of the repeat sequence also called ____
A
ATNs
B
VNTRs
C
PVTMs
D
QSMKs
Question 76 Explanation: 
The number of copies of the repeat sequence also called as VNTRs differs from one individual to another, and results in variation in the size of the DNA segment.
Question 77
Which among the following is correct regarding applications of DNA Fingerprinting?
A
Forensic applications like crime investigation
B
Study of genetic diversity of population
C
Study of evolution
D
All the above
Question 77 Explanation: 
DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications like crime investigation such as identifying the culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes. It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.
Question 78
Genetic modification refers to the alteration or manipulation of genes in the organisms using rDNA techniques in order to produce the desired characteristics. The DNA fragment inserted is called?
A
Pangene
B
Transgene
C
Melongene
D
Plasmagene
Question 78 Explanation: 
Genetic modification refers to the alteration or manipulation of genes in the organisms using rDNA techniques in order to produce the desired characteristics. The DNA fragment inserted is called transgene. Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foregin gene are also known as transgenic organisms.
Question 79
Which gene is required for the synthesis of Vitamin A in human being?
A
Alpha carotene
B
Beta carotene
C
Delta carotene
D
Gama carotene
Question 79 Explanation: 
Golden rice is produced by inserting Beta carotene gene (In humans, Beta carotene is required for the synthesis of Vitamin A). Genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene, that can prevent Vitamin A deficiency.
Question 80
To improve insect resistance Bt gene from which was inserted in plants?
A
Hay Bacillus
B
Bacillus Metarhizium
C
Bacillus Thuringiensis
D
Bacillus Bassiana
Question 80 Explanation: 
To increase resistant plants Bt gene from bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis. (Bt gene produces a protein that is toxic to insects) is inserted in plants to increase crop production.
Question 81
To improved wool quality and production in sheep Genes for synthesis of what was inserted?
A
Amino acid
B
Sulphuric acid
C
Chloric acid
D
Fermic acid
Question 81 Explanation: 
To improve wool quality and production in sheep Transgenic sheep, Genes for synthesis of amino acid, cysteine are inserted.
Question 82
Phaseolus mungo was introduced from which among the following country?
A
Japan
B
Brazil
C
Mexico
D
China
Question 82 Explanation: 
Phaseolus mungo was introduced from China.
Once you are finished, click the button below. Any items you have not completed will be marked incorrect. Get Results
There are 82 questions to complete.

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *