Federalism in India 12th Political Science Lesson 5 Questions in English

12th Political Science Lesson 5 Questions in English

5] Federalism in India

1. Which refers to a political system that possess Constitutionally provided and guaranteed distribution of powers between a national government and several regional governments?

1. Secularism
2. Socialism
3. Federalism
4. Sovereignty

Explanation

Federalism refers to a political system that possess Constitutionally provided and guaranteed distribution of powers between a national government and several regional governments. The fundamental attribute of a federal Constitution is the Constitutionally created and protected State or regional governments.

2. In the modern world, which country became the first federal State?

1. USA
2. Canada
3. Australia
4. Switzerland

Explanation

In the modern world, the United States of America became the first federal State. Thereafter British colonies in Australia and Canada were also granted self-government and they too adopted federal forms of government.

3. In which regulation act the beginnings of federalism in modern India could be traced?

1. Regulation Act of 1773
2. Regulation Act of 1833
3. Regulation Act of 1947
4. Regulation Act of 1813

Explanation

The beginnings of federalism in modern India could be traced in the Regulating Act of 1773, which brought the three regions in India under East India Company’s authority (Madras, Calcutta and Bombay).

4. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. The Indian National Movement recognized the plural character of colonial India. The Government of India Act 1919, introduced partial autonomy (Dyarchy) in the Presidencies, while the Government of India Act 1935, granted provincial autonomy to the presidencies and proposed a Dyarchical form of government at the Centre.
2. The Irwin Committee Report in 1932 and Mahatma Gandhi’s first proposals of a Constitution favoured a federal structure with more powers for the constituent States. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution contains the three lists relating to the distribution of powers between the Centre and States.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The Nehru Committee Report in 1928 and Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru’s first proposals of a Constitution favoured a federal structure with more powers for the constituent States. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains the three lists relating to the distribution of powers between the Centre and States.

5. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Federalism requires a written Constitution. There are many governments in any federal system and for their smooth and friction free functioning their powers must be stated in crystal clear terms. There are Twenty-nine State Governments and One national government at present operating in Indian federalism.
2. The Constitution must be the supreme legal document in the country. All governments must follow the terms and conditions, procedures contained in the Constitution. No government can claim powers above the Constitution.
3. The distribution of powers between Centre and States is the cardinal principle of any federal system. Indian Constitution distributes powers between the two levels of governments in a comprehensive scheme. There are three lists of power distribution unlike in the classical federalism of American Constitution where there is only a single mode of distribution.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

6. The upper house of parliament is called _____

1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Legislative Assembly
4. Congress

Explanation

The federal Constitutions provide for bicameralism. It refers to parliament having two houses. Indian Parliament is bicameral as it consists of two houses. The upper house is called Rajya Sabha or Council of States while the lower house is known as Lok Sabha or House of the People.

7. Which among the following statement is correct

1. A Constitution will be called a rigid Constitution only if its provisions cannot be amended by any special process of Constitutional amendment or through a separate amendment body and not through ordinary legislative process.
2. Federal Constitutions do not permit Constitutional changes through ordinary legislative process. They prescribe a tougher, rigid process of amendment like greater majority. The rationale behind this rigidity is the desire to protect States’ rights.
3. The article 368 in Part XX Indian Constitution provides a separate amendment procedure for amending Constitutional provisions and therefore our Constitution is rigid one and to some extent protects the States.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

A Constitution will be called a rigid Constitution if its provisions can be amended only through a special process of Constitutional amendment or through a separate amendment body and not through ordinary legislative process.

8. Which among the following acts as the umpire of the federal system and protector of the Constitution?

1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Supreme Court
4. Legislative Assembly

Explanation

Indian Supreme Court acts as the umpire of the federal system and protector of the Constitution. It possesses the powers of interpretation and adjudication. If any disagreement or contradiction arises among the Central and State Governments the Supreme Court resolves them. Th e Constitution endows the Supreme Court with Original Jurisdiction.

9. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Like the United States which posse only national Constitution India possesses only one Constitution that caters to the needs of administration both in the Centre and States.
2. There is only one citizenship, exists in India, i.e. national citizenship. In the United States the citizens are endowed with both national and State citizenships.
3. Indian Constitution is partially flexible. Some of the provisions of the Constitution can be carried out by a simple majority in the Parliament.
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

India possesses only one Constitution that caters to the needs of administration both in the Centre and States. Like the United States the individual States possess their own Constitution in addition to the national Constitution.

10. Which of the Constitution provide the procedure for the creation of new States and abolition of the existing States?

1. Article 1 and 2
2. Article 3 and 4
3. Article 5 and 6
4. Article 8 and 9

Explanation

Our Constitution doesn’t recognize the right of the States to name and existence. The union parliament can change the nomenclature and territorial identity of the States through an ordinary law. The articles 3 and 4 of the Constitution provide the procedure for the creation of new States and abolition of the existing States.

11. Which majority in Parliament is the requirement for reshaping the identity of the States?

1. Simple majority
2. Absolute majority
3. Effective majority
4. Special majority

Explanation

An ordinary bill is introduced in either House of the Parliament for creating a new State or changing the name on the recommendation of the President. The bill is discussed and passed in Parliament leading to the creation of new States. A simple majority in Parliament is the requirement for reshaping the identity of the States.

12. Which among the following statement is correct

1. There is no equality principle followed in the distribution of seats in the Council of States. The seats are distributed on the basis of population of the individual States. The most populous State of Uttar Pradesh has 31 seats whereas the smaller States like Nagaland have only one seat.
2. But in any ideal federalism there should be equality of seat distribution in the upper house as seen in the United States where all the fifty State have two seats each in the upper House of Congress (Parliament) the Senate.
3. Article 249 of the Constitution enables the Lok Sabha to transfer a subject from the Union List to the State list for the purpose of legislation by parliament on grounds of national interest.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 249 of the Constitution enables the Rajya Sabha to transfer a subject from the State List to the Union list for the purpose of legislation by parliament on grounds of national interest.

13. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The Union Government is endowed with comparatively greater powers both in terms of quantity and quality. Most of the lucrative sources of revenue have been allotted to the Union Government and the States have been rendered financially weaker and forever dependent on Central Government.
2. The Union List has more subjects than the State List and in the Concurrent List ultimately the union power over the States will prevail. The residuary powers are given to the Union Government and not granted to the States as in federal countries like the United States.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

14. Which part of our Constitution provide for three kinds of emergencies in India?

1. Part XII
2. Part XIII
3. Part IX
4. Part XIV

Explanation

The articles 352 to 360 in Part XIII of our Constitution provide for three kinds of emergencies in India. Article 352 of the Constitution can proclaim National Emergency.

15. Under which article of the Constitution, the President can declare Financial Emergency?

1. Article 352
2. Article 354
3. Article 357
4. Article 360

Explanation

Article 352 of the Constitution can proclaim National Emergency. Under article 356 of the Constitution the President can impose emergency in any State on the grounds of the breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the State. Under article 360 of the Constitution, the President can declare Financial Emergency.

16. Which among the following statement is correct

1. India establishes a single, integrated and hierarchical judiciary. The Supreme Court is the apex judicial institution and the High Courts and the Subordinate Courts function under its supervision and power. In contrast, the classical federalism is following the United States.
2. The National Election Commission conducts elections only to Parliament. There are separate State Election Commission for the State legislatures. There is a unified election machinery in charge of both Parliament and State legislature elections.
3. The Chief Electoral Officer under the control of the Election Commission conducts the elections to the State legislatures. In the ideal federal systems, there is a separate election machinery for conducting elections to the State legislature.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The National Election Commission conducts elections not only to Parliament but also to the State legislatures. There is a unified election machinery in charge of both Parliament and State legislature elections.

17. In which article of the constitution it mentioned the Comptroller and Auditor-General controls the entire financial system of the country?

1. Article 134
2. Article 148
3. Article 157
4. Article 182

Explanation

India follows a unified auditing system for both the central and State governments. The Comptroller and Auditor-General as mentioned in article 148 of the Constitution controls the entire financial system of the country.

18. In federal Constitution there are how many types of power distribution?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Six
4. Five

Explanation

The Centre-State Relations revolve around the fulcrum of distribution of powers between Centre and States. Distribution of powers is the foundational feature of federalism and in federal Constitutions there are three types of distributions, they are: 1. Legislative Power Distribution 2. Executive Power Distribution 3. Financial Power Distribution.

19. Who conducts elections to Panchayat Bodies and Urban Local Bodies in accordance with 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments?

1. District Election Commission
2. National Election Commission
3. Bharat Election Commission
4. State Election Commission

Explanation

State Election Commission is not part of the federal system in India. It conducts elections to Panchayat Bodies and Urban Local Bodies in accordance with 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.

20. There are how many aspects to the distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States in our Constitution?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Six
4. Four

Explanation

There are two aspects to the distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and States in our Constitution. They are a) Territorial Distribution of Powers b) Subject Distribution.

21. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. The powers are distributed between the union and State governments territorially. The Union Government possess the powers over the entire territory of India while the States have jurisdiction over their own territories.
2. The Central Government has extra territorial jurisdiction that means that its laws govern not only persons and property within India but also Indian citizens and their properties located in any corner of the world. In contrast, the State legislatures do not possess jurisdiction outside their own territory.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

22. How many items are there in concurrent list?

1. 61 items
2. 74 items
3. 52 items
4. 68 items

Explanation

Concurrent List contains 52 items. Both the union and State governments have powers over these subjects. But when there occurs a clash between the union and State governments the law of the parliament will prevail.

23. How many subjects are there in state list?

1. 59
2. 63
3. 76
4. 92

Explanation

State List contains the subjects that are exclusively allotted to the State governments. There are 59 items in State list.

Union List contains the subjects and powers exclusively allotted to the union parliament. There are 100 subjects in Union List.

24. Which among the following List is marked correctly with its subject

1. Union List – Public health
2. State List – Fisheries
3. Concurrent List – Education
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In Union List there are 100 subjects here including defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency. In State List there are 59 items including public order, and police, public health, local government, agriculture, forests, fisheries. Concurrent List contains 52 items including criminal law and procedure, civil procedure, marriage, education. This list is called as Concurrent Lis

25. Our Constitution broadly follows the legislative distribution of powers provided in which Government of India Act enacted during the British colonial era?

1. Government of India Act 1858
2. Government of India Act 1909
3. Government of India Act 1919
4. Government of India Act 1935

Explanation

Our Constitution broadly follows the legislative distribution of powers provided in the Government of India Act 1935 enacted during the British colonial era.

26. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The Constitution distributes the legislative subjects between the Union Government and States in an elaborate scheme. There are three Lists of distribution. 1. Union 2. State 3. Concurrent.
2. There is also another category called Revisionary powers. Any subject not mentioned in the above three lists will automatically come under the jurisdiction of the Concurrent List.
3. The above scheme of legislative power distribution will be normally followed. But under exceptional circumstances the scheme will be suspended. The power of the Union Parliament will be expanded and concomitantly the powers of the State legislatures will be diminished.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

There is also another category called residuary powers. Any subject not mentioned in the above three lists will automatically come under the jurisdiction of the Union Government.

27. Who declares National Emergency the union parliament acquires the powers to legislate over the subjects in the State List?

1. Attorney General
2. Prime Minister
3. President
4. Governor

Explanation

When the President of India declares National Emergency the union parliament acquires the powers to legislate over the subjects in the State List. The emergency is declared by the president to tackle problems like war, external aggression and armed rebellion that pose a danger to the existence of our nation.

28. Which among the following statement is correct

1. When two or more States agree that their mutual interests will be served better if there is common law on a particular subject and request the Union Government to enact the needed law, the Parliament can enact a common law for the desiring States on that subject even if it falls in the State List.
2. For the purpose of tackling the challenges successfully and effectively, the Union Government gains control over State legislature powers too. The Parliament will have powers of enactment on a State subject for the purpose of implementing an international agreement.
3. After the declaration of article 183 emergency in a State the President can declare that the parliament will enact on State list subjects for that State.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

After the declaration of article 356 emergency in a State the President can declare that the parliament will enact on State list subjects for that State.

29. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Our Constitution distributes executive powers between the union and State governments. The distribution is co-terminus with legislative power distribution to a great extent. The Union Government possesses executive powers over the subjects that are included in the List I, namely the Union List.
2. The States have executive powers over the subjects that are included in the List II, namely the State List. The executive power of the Union Government extends over the territory of India while the executive power of the State governments extends over their own territories.
3. The executive powers over the subjects in the Concurrent List is ordinarily with the State governments. Nevertheless, the Union Government retains powers to issue directions to the State governments in the execution of executive functions both in normal times and during emergencies.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

30. There are how many sources of revenue distributed by the Constitution?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Seven
4. Five

Explanation

Indian Constitution distributes financial powers between the union and States in a comprehensive arrangement that is broadly modelled on the 1935 Government of India Act. There are two sources of revenue distributed by the Constitution namely Tax Revenue and Non-tax Revenue.

31. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Certain taxes like Corporation tax and Custom tax are exclusively allotted to the State Government. Certain taxes like sales tax are exclusively allotted to the Central. Certain taxes are levied by the concerned State but collected and appropriated by the Union and the examples are stamp duties on Bills of Exchange and Excise duties.
2. Certain taxes are levied and collected by the Union Government but the proceeds are assigned to the States in which they are levied like the taxes on the sale of advertisements in newspapers.
3. Certain taxes are levied and collected by the Central Government and are distributed between the union and State Governments in a certain proportion like the tax on income other than an agricultural income.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Certain taxes like Corporation tax and Custom tax are exclusively allotted to the Central Government. Certain taxes like sales tax are exclusively allotted to the States. Certain taxes are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the concerned States and the examples are stamp duties on Bills of Exchange and Excise duties.

32. Which among the following Non-tax Revenue was not source for Union Government?

1. Railway
2. Electricity
3. Post and Telegraph
4. Broadcasting

Explanation

The Union Government gets its revenue from the receipts from commercial and industrial undertakings relating to central subjects like Industrial Finance Corporation. It gets its revenue from Railways, Posts and Telegraphs, Broadcasting etc.

The State Governments get revenue from the receipts of commercial enterprises and industrial undertakings allotted to them. The sources among others include forests, irrigation, electricity, road transport.

33. Which Article asks the Union Government to provide Grants-in Aid to the States like Assam, keeping in mind the imperative of the development and welfare of the tribal population?

1. Article 254
2. Article 275
3. Article 262
4. Article 289

Explanation

The Constitution understands the greater financial needs of certain States and therefore the article 275 asks the Union Government to provide Grants-in Aid to the States like Assam, keeping in mind the imperative of the development and welfare of the tribal population.

34. Who constitutes a Finance Commission once in every five years?

1. Prime Minster
2. Chief Justice of India
3. President
4. Finance Minister

Explanation

The president of India constitutes a Finance Commission once in every five years.

35. Which article of the Constitution describes the composition of the Finance Commission?

1. Article 280
2. Article 250
3. Article 310
4. Article 230

Explanation

The article 280 of the Constitution describes the composition of the Finance Commission. It will have one Chairman and four other members. The Chairman will be a person with experience in public affairs and the members will have experience in financial administration, special knowledge of economics, special knowledge of public accounts and government finances, and one member will have the qualification of a High Court judge.

36. In which among the following manner Finance Commission will not provide recommendations

1. For the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Centre and States
2. Principles governing grants-in-aid.
3. Measures needed to increase the Consolidated Fund of India or States to supplement the resources of the Urban Local Bodies.
4. Measures needed to decrease the Consolidated Fund of India or States to supplement the resources of the Panchayat Bodies.

Explanation

Measures needed to increase the Consolidated Fund of India or States to supplement the resources of the Panchayat Bodies. Any other matter referred by the president. So far fourteen Finance Commissions have been constituted once in every five years.

37. Who among the following described Indian federal system as Co-operative Federalism designed to promote co-operation between the Centre and States?

1. Bernard Bailyn
2. Granville Austin
3. Richard Hofstadter
4. Robert Fogel

Explanation

The Indian Constitutional expert Granville Austin described (Renowned scholar of the Indian Constitution, described) Indian federal system as Co-operative Federalism designed to promote co-operation between the Centre and States. The concepts of co-operative federalism apply to those federal governments like the USA where the States have more or adequate powers and the formation of the union is based on “the indestructible union composed of indestructible States”.

38. Which among the following statement is correct

1. In a quasi-federal State like India, the state Government can very easily pull down any constituent Union for non-cooperation or non-compliance or defiance of Union Government’s will through Constitutional provisions, especially through the emergency powers assigned to the Prime Minister.
2. The Constitution does not permit States defiance to Centre. There are many provisions, institutions and bodies created in Indian political system to promote the co-operative functioning of the central and State Governments in India. They can be classified into Constitutional, statutory and political bodies and provisions.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In a quasi-federal State like India, the Union Government can very easily pull down any constituent State for non-cooperation or non-compliance or defiance of Union Government’s will through Constitutional provisions, especially through the emergency powers assigned to the President.

39. Which Article of the Constitution says that the President of India can establish the Inter-State Council to serve public interests?

1. Article 284
2. Article 263
3. Article 291
4. Article 247

Explanation

The article 263 of the Constitution says that the President of India can establish the Inter-State Council to serve public interests.

40. Which among the following is not the function of Inter-State Council

1. To enquire into and advise upon disputes among the States
2. To investigate and discuss the subjects that are common to the union and State Governments
3. To form the separate legislative assembly within state to discuss matter related to state dispute
4. To make recommendations to the President for better co-ordination on any particular subjects among the State Governments.

Explanation

There are three functions and duties assigned to the Inter-State Council a) To enquire into and advise upon disputes among the States b) To investigate and discuss the subjects that are common to the union and State Governments c) To make recommendations to the President for better co-ordination on any particular subjects among the State Governments.

41. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Inter-State Council

1. The holistic Inter-State Council was established in early nineties to deal with general cooperation among the units of Indian federal system on the recommendation of the Kothari Commission. The President functions as the chairperson of the council.
2. The Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with Legislative Assemblies, six cabinet ministers of the Union Government, administrators of the Union Territories without Legislative Assemblies and Governors of States under President’s Rule are its members.
3. A Standing Committee consisting of the Union Home Minister, five other Cabinet Ministers and nine Chief Ministers also works as part of the Inter State Council to promote co-operation among the members of the federal system.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The holistic Inter-State Council was established in early nineties to deal with general cooperation among the units of Indian federal system on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission. The Prime Minister functions as the chairperson of the council.

42. Who described the objective of Zonal Council as to “develop the habit of co-operative working”?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Lal Bahadur Shastri
3. Indira Gandhi
4. V.P. Singh

Explanation

The Zonal Councils were established by the States Reorganization Act in 1956 to achieve cooperation and co-ordination among States. They were created in the backdrop of linguistic reorganization of India and the first Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru described their objective as to “develop the habit of co-operative working”.

43. Which Zonal council was added in 1971 to the original five Zonal Council?

1. Northern Zonal Council
2. Couther Zonal Council
3. Western Zonal Council
4. North Eastern Zonal Council

Explanation

Originally five Zonal Councils were created and later on in 1971 one more Zonal Council was established for the North Eastern States. They are 1. Northern Zonal Council 2. Southern Zonal Council 3. Eastern Zonal Council 4. Western Zonal Council 5. Central Zonal Council 6. North Eastern Zonal Council.

44. Who will be the common Chairperson of all the Zonal Councils?

1. President
2. Prime Minister
3. Union Home Minister
4. Ministry of Law and Justice

Explanation

The Union Home Minister will be the common Chairperson of all the Zonal Councils. Additionally, each Zonal Council will consist of the Chief Minister and two other Ministers of each State and the Administrator of the Union Territory in the zone.

45. When the River Boards Act establishes River Boards to provide advice to the concerned governments concerned for the regulation of an inter-State river or river valley?

1. 1956
2. 1961
3. 1974
4. 1984

Explanation

The River Boards Act, 1956 establishes River Boards to provide advice to the concerned governments concerned for the regulation of an inter-State river or river valley.

46. The Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 was enacted in accordance with the which article of the Constitution?

1. Article 282
2. Article 262
3. Article 258
4. Article 215

Explanation

The Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956 was enacted in accordance with the article 262 of the Constitution that mandated that all inter-State river disputes should be resolved through negotiations. The act provides for the formation of ad hoc tribunals for resolving inter-State water disputes if repeated negotiations prove to be futile in resolving the issue.

47. When the Union Government created the National Commission (NITI AAYOG) for Transforming India after dissolving, 65-year-old, the Planning Commission?

1. 2014
2. 2011
3. 2015
4. 2018

Explanation

The Union Government created the National Commission (NITI AAYOG) for Transforming India after dissolving, 65-year-old, the Planning Commission on January 2015. One of the primary objectives of the commission is to “foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives and mechanisms with the States on a continuous basis”. It recognizes that strong States will make strong nation.

48. Who is the ex officio chairman of NITI AAYOG?

1. President
2. Prime Minister
3. Attorney General
4. Vice President

Explanation

The Prime Minister is the ex officio chairman of NITI AAYOG and the permanent members of the governing council are all the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief Ministers of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry and the Lieutenant Governor of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

49. Which among the following state is not involved in Cauvery dispute?

1. Karnataka
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Kerala
4. Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

Inter-State River Water Disputes play a crucial role in the evolution of federalism in Indian politics. There are a large number of such disputes in our country. The Cauvery dispute involving Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Puducherry Union Territory.

50. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The article 278 of the Constitution empowers the parliament to enact a law providing for the adjudication of any dispute, complaint relating to the use, distribution and control of any inter–State river or river valley. It also provides that parliament can include the Supreme Court or any other court from exercising any jurisdiction over inter-State river water disputes.
2. Parliament is empowered to enact a law overriding any provision of the Constitution. The logic of this provision is that inter–State river water disputes contain emotional and economic implications affecting the lives and livelihood of millions of people.
3. Judicial adjudication of the disputes may create social and economic problems. Therefore, the national legislature must have competence to evolve a mechanism for resolution of these disputes through negotiations and direct dialogue.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The article 262 of the Constitution empowers the parliament to enact a law providing for the adjudication of any dispute, complaint relating to the use, distribution and control of any inter–State river or river valley. It also provides that parliament can exclude the Supreme Court or any other court from exercising any jurisdiction over inter-State river water disputes.

51. Which among the following state is not involved in dispute of Mahadayi river?

1. Gujarat
2. Maharashtra
3. Goa
4. Karnataka

Explanation

Vamsadara River dispute involving Andhra Pradesh and Odisha, Sutlej dispute involving Punjab, Haryana, Mahadayi river dispute involving Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka are the major Inter – State River Water Dispute ones.

52. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Empowered by the article 262 of the Constitution the parliament enacted inter-State river water dispute act, 1956. This act enables the Union Government to establish a tribunal for the adjudication of an inter-State river water dispute. The Indian Constitutional and legal consensus is that all inter-State river water disputes must be resolved through peaceful negotiations.
2. When the Union Government decides to constitute a tribunal, the Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India will nominate a person to head it. Earlier, the tribunal always used to consist of one person only but later on this provision was amended to include more members. No tribunal can be constituted for any dispute that has been placed for arbitration under the River Water Board Act, 1956
3. The President will choose a person (nominee?) from the sitting or retired Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The decision of the Tribunal shall be published in the Official Gazette and there after that decision shall be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Either the Supreme Court or any other court shall have jurisdiction over any inter-State water dispute referred to a tribunal under the Act.
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

The Chief Justice will choose a person (nominee?) from the sitting or retired Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts. The decision of the Tribunal shall be published in the Official Gazette and there after that decision shall be final and binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall have jurisdiction over any inter-State water dispute referred to a tribunal under the Act.

53. Who was an agent of the Central Government to monitor the State Government imperils the powers of the constituent States?

1. Chief Minister
2. Collector
3. Governor
4. Advocate General

Explanation

The very office of the Governor as an agent of the Central Government to monitor the State Government imperils the powers of the constituent States.

54. Which Committee Report was highly critical of the office and role of governor?

1. Kelkar Committee
2. Raja Mannar Committee
3. Bimal Jalan Committee
4. Chandra Shekhar Committee

Explanation

The Raja Mannar Committee Report was highly critical of the office and role of governor. It is often pointed out that the Union Government to arm-twist the State executive. The Dravidian parties, since the days of C.N. Annadurai, have been demanding ‘genuine autonomy for the States, by reducing the Governor’s power of interfering with the State executive and State legislature.

55. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The regional parties have deprecated the practice of appointing politically active and partisan persons as governors. They have frequently demanded that the governor should be appointed in consultation with the State Government. Many political commentators and commissions have argued for the appointment of eminent persons who have contributed to India’s development in diverse fields as governors
2. The attitude of the Governor towards the State Governments of those ruled by parties opposed to the ruling party at the Centre is another major tension area in Centre-State relations.
3. Whenever there is a split in a ruling State party or hung assembly, the role of the Governor becomes very crucial and, in many instances, the regional and opposition parties have agitated against the decisions of the incumbents in gubernatorial office.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

56. Which Constitutional Amendment Act that transferred the subject of education from List II or State List to the List III or Concurrent List?

1. 42^nd Constitutional Amendment
2. 25^th Constitutional Amendment
3. 31^st Constitutional Amendment
4. 56^th Constitutional Amendment

Explanation

There is a popular demand that the subject of education must be restored to the List II or State List in which originally it was located. The Parliament in 1976 enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act that transferred the subject of education to the List III or Concurrent List. The State Governments exclusively had authority over education when it was in State List and the Union Government acquire education after this transfer.

57. Who has discretionary power to reserve a bill of the State legislature for the consideration of the President?

1. Chief Justice of India
2. Chief Minister
3. Governor
4. High Court Judges

Explanation

The Governor of a State has discretionary power to reserve a bill of the State legislature for the consideration of the President. Whenever a money bill of the State legislature is reserved by the Governor the President may either declare or withhold his assent.

58. Which among the following statement is correct

1. President can also direct the Governor to send the bill for reconsideration to the legislature concerned. Even if the bill is again passed by the State legislature it is not obligatory for President to declare his assent. This provision was incorporated in the Constitution to protect the unity and integrity of India.
2. But many State Governments have criticized the Governors for reserving the duly passed State bills for the consideration of the President as there were alleged to have been motivated by political considerations to suppress the State Governments and to further the interests of the ruling party or coalition at the Centre.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

59. Which part of the Constitution provides for the proclamation of Emergency by the President in any State?

1. Part XIII
2. Part XVIII
3. Part XIV
4. Part XIX

Explanation

The article 356 in Part XVIII of the Constitution provides for the proclamation of Emergency by the President in any State where there is a breakdown of Constitutional machinery either based on the report of the Governor or even otherwise. The article emphasizes on the supremacy of the Constitution and national unity and integrity.

60. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The State Governments ruled by the opposition parties of the ruling party at the Centre have complained against the frequent and improper use of this article by the ruling party or coalition at the Centre.
2. More than a hundred times, the article has been used to impose emergency in States and in many instances, there was a huge complaint that political and party considerations have led to the imposition of the President’s Rule.
3. Many regional parties have demanded the abolition of this article. However, since the Madras High Court’s judgement in S.R. Bommai vs State Government of Tamil Nadu case, the chances for misuse of article 356 drastically reduced.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Many regional parties have demanded the abolition of this article. However, since the Supreme Court’s judgement in S.R. Bommai vs Union of India case, the chances for misuse of article 356 drastically reduced.

61. All India Services are created under which article of the Constitution?

1. Article 284
2. Article 259
3. Article 312
4. Article 347

Explanation

All India Services are created under article 312 of the Constitution. The officers to these services are recruited by the Union Government and posted in the States.

62. Which Government have powers of posting and transfer of All India Services officers?

1. State Government
2. Central Government
3. Both State and Central Government
4. Supreme Court

Explanation

The State Governments have powers of posting, transfer while the Central Government alone has powers to dismiss All India Services officers. As the ultimate control over the All India Services are with the Central Government the State Governments have sought changes in the system and the Rajamannar Commission of Tamil Nadu government suggested a complete revamping in the structure and position of All India Services.

63. The First Administrative Reforms Commission was formed in 1966 initially under the leadership of whom?

1. V.P. Singh
2. Indira Gandhi
3. Lal Bahadur Shastri
4. Morarji Desai

Explanation

The First Administrative Reforms Commission was formed in 1966 initially under the leadership of Morarji Desai and later on by K. Hanumanthaiah. It submitted twenty reports including one in which extensive suggestions were provided in the domain of Centre-State relations.

64. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission was constituted in the new millennium in 2005 under whose leadership initially?

1. Mallikarjun Kharge
2. Veerappa Moily
3. Manmohan Singh
4. Sachin Pilot

Explanation

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission was constituted in the new millennium in 2005 under the chairmanship of initially Veerappa Moily and later on by V. Ramachandran.

65. Which state established the Rajamannar committee to analyse and provide recommendations for restructuring the Centre-State relations in our Constitution?

1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Karnataka

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu government established the Rajamannar committee to analyse and provide recommendations for restructuring the Centre-State relations in our Constitution.

66. Who among the following was not the part of Rajamannar committee?

1. A Lakshmanaswamy
2. Dr P. Chandra Reddy
3. P. V. Rajamannar
4. C. Rangarajan

Explanation

The Rajamannar committee consisted of the retired Chief Justice of Madras High Court Justice. P.V.Rajamannar, former ViceChancellor of the University of Madras, Dr A Lakshmanaswamy and a former Chief Justice of Andhra, Dr P. Chandra Reddy. It submitted its report to the government in 1971 marking a great milestone in the history of autonomy debate in the country.

67. Which among the following statement is the major suggestions of the Rajamannar committee?

1. The article 263 of the Constitution should be implemented and Inter-State Council should be formed to promote cooperation among central and State Governments. The proposed council must consist of the Chief Ministers of the States or their nominees and the Prime Minister as the Chairperson.
2. All the major bills of the Parliament and decisions of the State Government that affect the interests of Union Government must be placed and discussed in the council. Its opinion should be considered in the decision-making process. The committee’s made consultation with the Inter State Council is mandatory in all matters barring those related to the three subjects, namely defence, education and foreign affairs.
3. The committee recommended the elimination of articles 256, 257, 339(2) from our Constitution. The committee was against specifically these articles as they enable the Centre to issue instructions to the State Governments. It favoured the shifting of the residuary powers of legislation and taxation from the Union Government to the State Governments to empower the States.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All the major bills of the Parliament and decisions of the Union Government that affect the interests of one or more States must be placed and discussed in the council. Its opinion should be considered in the decision-making process. The committee’s made consultation with the Inter State Council is mandatory in all matters barring those related to the two subjects, namely defence and foreign affairs.

68. Which among the following statement is the major suggestions of the Rajamannar committee?

1. The article 268 in Part XVII of the Constitution should be diligently used by the Union Government only as a measure of last resort in the event of a complete breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the State and not in a mere law and order break down situation.
2. The committee wanted to introduce far reaching changes in All India Services. It suggested the abolition of All India Services including the elite Indian Administrative Service as they are against the spirit of federalism and State autonomy.
3. It highlighted the concerns of the State Governments ruled by opposition parties of the ruling party at the Centre about the All India Services acting as agents of the Union Government.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The article 356 in Part XVIII of the Constitution should be diligently used by the Union Government only as a measure of last resort in the event of a complete breakdown of the Constitutional machinery in the State and not in a mere law and order break down situation.

69. Which among the following statement is not the major suggestions of the Rajamannar committee?

1. In the domain of financial resources, the committee recommended greater devolution of powers and resources to the States. For the purpose of expanding the financial capacity of the States it suggested changes in certain taxes like corporation tax, customs and export taxes.
2. The committee recognized the finances as the fulcrum of State rights and balanced federalism and therefore recommended the transfer of many items from Union List and Concurrent List to State List in the seventh schedule of the Constitution. It argued for making the Finance Commission a permanent, impartial body devoted to the priorities of national unity, development and State rights and identities.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

70. The Union Government constituted a commission under whose chairmanship in 1983 to review the Centre-State relation?

1. P. Chandra Reddy
2. Prabha Shankar Mishra
3. R.S. Sarkaria
4. Nagendra Kumar

Explanation

The Union Government constituted a commission under the chairmanship of Justice R.S.Sarkaria in 1983 to review the Centre-State relation.

71. Who among the following was the member of Sarkaria Commission?

1. B. Sivaraman
2. G.B. Ekbote
3. Umesh Chandra Banerjee
4. Ashok Kumar

Explanation

The Union Government constituted a commission under the chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria. B. Sivaraman and Dr R.S. Sen were the two other members of the commission. Five years later, it submitted a comprehensive report containing 247 recommendations.

72. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Inter-State Council must have the functions laid down in article 263 (b) and (c) that is to investigate subjects where many States have common interest and to make recommendation for better co-ordination of policy in that subject.
2. The commission argued against article 263(a) stating that the Inter-State Commission should have powers to enquire and advise on inter-State disputes. The commission also suggested the establishment of an judicial dependent, temporary secretariat for Inter-State Council to make the body more effective.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The commission argued against article 263(a) stating that the Inter-State Commission should not have powers to enquire and advise on inter-State disputes. Th e commission also suggested the establishment of an independent, permanent secretariat for Inter-State Council to make the body more effective.

73. Sarkaria commission suggested which article must be imposed only meagrely, as a measure of last resort when there is a complete breakdown of Constitutional machinery in a State?

1. Article 251
2. Article 356
3. Article 371
4. Article 327

Explanation

Sarkaria Commission t suggested that the article 356 must be imposed only meagrely, as a measure of last resort when there is a complete breakdown of Constitutional machinery in a State. All available and possible alternatives should be explored before the imposition of the article 356 Emergency in the State concerned.

74. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Sarkaria commission accepted the demand and suggestion of some political parties and States that the office of governor must be abolished or the concerned State Government must be consulted before the appointment of State governors.
2. On the contrary, for smoother functioning of federalism it suggested that the politically active persons and leaders should not be appointed as governors. Only eminent persons must be appointed as governors. When differing parties are ruling at the Centre and States the leader belonging the ruling party at the Centre must not be appointed as the governor of a State.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Sarkaria commission rejected the demand and suggestion of some political parties and States that the office of governor must be abolished or the concerned State Government must be consulted before the appointment of State governors.

75. Sarkaria commission recommended the strict adherence to how many language formulae to strengthen the unity and integrity of the country?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. One

Explanation

Sarkaria commission recommended the strict adherence to the tri language formula to strengthen the unity and integrity of the country.

76. When the Union Government constituted a commission, under the leadership of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, the former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court?

1. 1999
2. 2003
3. 2010
4. 2007

Explanation

Th e Union Government constituted a commission in 2007, under the leadership of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, the former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in 2007. Th e commission also had three more members and a Secretary and presented its report in 2010. It recommended that the governors of the States must have fixed tenure and they should be removed only through impeachment process akin to the President of India.

77. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Punchhi Commission wanted to introduce changes in articles 355 and 356 so that insurgency or problem afflicted areas or districts in a State rather than the entire State can be brought under emergency as a strategy to localize emergency and efficiently handle insurgency or troubles.
2. The Punchhi commission also suggested that the Union Government must have power and authority for the suomotu deployment of central forces without the consent of the concerned States in areas affected by communal violence.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

78. Venkatachaliah Commission was set up by a resolution of the NDA Government of India led by whom on 22 February 2000 for suggesting possible amendments to the Constitution of India?

1. Lal Krishna Advani
2. P.V. Narasimha Rao
3. Morarji Desai
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Explanation

The National Commission to review the working of the Constitution (NCRWC) also known as Justice Manepalli Narayana Rao Venkatachaliah Commission was set up by a resolution of the NDA Government of India led by Atal Bihari Vajpayee on 22 February 2000 for suggesting possible amendments to the Constitution of India.

79. Who called Article 356 as a dead letter to the Constitution as it negates the federal characters of the Indian Political System and the popular sovereignty of an elected government?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
3. Rajendra Prasad
4. V.P. Singh

Explanation

Dr Ambedkar called this Article 356 as a dead letter to the Constitution as it negates the federal characters of the Indian Political System and the popular sovereignty of an elected government.

80. When the Supreme Court delivered a landmark judgment in the S.R. Bommai versus Union of India Case?

1. 1994
2. 1999
3. 2004
4. 2006

Explanation

Th e Supreme Court delivered a landmark judgment in the S.R. Bommai versus Union of India Case in 1994 that has protected the rights of the states greatly. S.R. Bommai was the Chief Minister of Karnataka and his government was dismissed in 1994 by the Central Government leading to the filing of the case in the Supreme Court. The judgment protected the states from the arbitrary dismissal at the hands of the hostile Central Government.

81. Tamil Nadu has how many Seats in the Rajya Sabha?

1. 21
2. 12
3. 18
4. 15

Explanation

Tamil Nadu has 18 Seats in the Rajya Sabha.